Commentary on Romans 1-5
by Dave Brown
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[Comments are given in brackets. Often we will say "Paul said" thus and so. Be aware that the bible teaches that Paul was being guided by the Holy Spirit in these writings (1 Corinthians 2). Allow us this (accommodative language) shortcut substitute for the elaboration of "the Holy Spirit said through Paul," which would get quite cumbersome. The degree to which the apostle's thoughts and feelings were allowed to come through in the scriptures is a subject all its own, and when it comes to our attention we will discuss it. However, this makes these writings no less the working of the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit used Paul's expressed feelings to better communicate with us.]
Romans 1
1:1 Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called (to be) an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God,
2 which he promised afore through his prophets in the holy scriptures,
3 concerning his Son, who was born of the seed of David according to the flesh,
4 who was declared (to be) the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead; (even) Jesus Christ our Lord,
5 through whom we received grace and apostleship, unto obedience of faith among all the nations, for his name's sake;
6 among whom are ye also called (to be) Jesus Christ's:
7 To all that are in Rome, beloved of God, called (to be) saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
[We did not want to interrupt the sentence flow above. To summarize what Paul has established here:
[The phrase "obedience of faith" in verse 5 warrants special attention in that this is a term coined by Paul that occurs only two times in the bible, and second being in the next to the last verse of this epistle, but in the last sentence -- thus it is in the first and the last sentence. Coincidence? Neither the Holy Spirit nor Paul would leave such a thing to chance. This is an important and critical phrase for us to understand, and it is reflective of the entire underlying theme of the first 11 chapters. So let us not brush it off.]
[The literal Greek reads "obedience faith" (hupakoeen pistoos) as opposed to the quite ambiguous "obedience of faith" (ASV, NASB and most other common versions) or "obedience to the faith" (KJV, NKJV). (Interestingly, the KJV is inconsistent in its translation, calling it obedience to the faith in 1:5 and obedience of faith in 16:26 -- could it be that the meaning changed? The NKJV is at least consistent with obedience to the faith in both places.) Obedience to the faith is a tempting solution since the word "faith" here is identical to that noun used in Jude 3: "... I was constrained to write unto you exhorting you to contend earnestly for the faith which was once for all delivered unto the saints." And even faith-only proponents admit that faith cannot exist in a vacuum -- there has to be something that is believed. (Their problem is that they go beyond Christ to create a very restricted view of what the object of that belief must be.) In this regard, "the faith" of Jude 3 is the body of information that had been revealed to them by Jesus, first in person and then by his sending the Holy Spirit to them. The problem with the KJV/NKJV translation is that while Jude 3 qualifies faith with an article tee (Strongs 3588), there is no such article (in hupakoeen pistoos) either in the first or last sentence of the book of Romans.]
[Our proposed solution is twofold:
7 To all that are in Rome, beloved of God, called (to be) saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
8 First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you all, that your faith is proclaimed throughout the whole world.
9 For God is my witness, whom I serve in my spirit in the gospel of his Son, how unceasingly I make mention of you, always in my prayers
10 making request, if by any means now at length I may be prospered by the will of God to come unto you.
[Paul's prayer for them started out with a thanksgiving to God for the faith of the Roman Christians -- a faith that had to have been demonstrated by their obedience and works in promoting the gospel (James 2:18). So already we are getting a glimpse into what obedience faith is. The prayer goes on to make the request that Paul could come to them for the reasons that will become obvious in the next couple of verses. But we must not neglect the essence of verse 9. Why would Paul call God for his witness to attest that he was making prayers to come to them. In other places where such strong language is used (e.g., Philippians 1:8), it is clear that there were opponents of Paul (and the gospel) who were questioning his integrity and apostleship. Paul started off in verse 1 asserting his being an apostle, not in the general sense of the word (messenger), but in the official sense of the "twelve." We will see that this is in fact the case in Rome and that his appeal to God is warranted. He also asserts that what they could easily observe from his obvious obedience to Christ was not a surface things, but is was a service "in my spirit" or from the heart of the inner man. And, in fact, the very prayers under discussion would be evidence of such that could only be truly known by Paul and God.]
11 For I long to see you, that I may impart unto you some spiritual gift, to the end ye may be established;
12 that is, that I with you may be comforted in you, each of us by the other's faith, both yours and mine.
[The term "spiritual gift" appears in the singular only in this verse; the plural form appears only three times in First Corinthians (12:1; 14:1 and 14:12), where it is clear that Paul is talking about predominantly miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit that enabled the early Christians to know the doctrines of Christ prior to their being written down in the Bible. Paul, being an apostle had the ability to impart spiritual gifts by the laying on of his hands (see Acts 8:18 and 19:6). So, there is no doubt that this well could have been what he was talking about. However, to infer from this that the Christians at Rome had not already received such gifts is a completely different subject. There were converts made from Rome as indicated in Acts 2:10, and for them to return to Rome without having the miraculous guidance of the Holy Spirit would seem unthinkable. Further, there are indications within the current letter that they had spiritual gifts, such as Romans 12:6: "And having gifts differing according to the grace that was given to us, whether prophecy, (let us prophesy) according to the proportion of our faith..." That the further establishing them by imparting to them some spiritual gift (whether miraculous or not) is not dependent on their current possession of miraculous gifts, as we see in 1 Corinthians 12, 13 and 14.]
[In this address Paul shows his love for them, although he had never been to Rome and only knew of a few there directly. Nevertheless, he had heard of their faith (apparently from many quarters) and commended them for it. He expressed his desire to come to them that he might be of assistance in comforting them, looking forward to being comforted himself.]
13 And I would not have you ignorant, brethren, that oftentimes I purposed to come unto you (and was hindered hitherto), that I might have some fruit in you also, even as in the rest of the Gentiles.
[Paul's desire was made known to many, as we see in Acts 19:21, and he was later given assurance by Jesus that this desire would be accomplished (Acts 23:11). "As in the rest of the Gentiles" indicates that the Christians at Rome were predominantly Gentile. It might be asked then: why does Paul spend so much time discussing that they were no longer subject to the Law of Moses? The answer has at least three possibilities: (1) to address the concerns of the Jewish Christians there direction; (2) to address issues that the Gentiles might have who were being influenced by these perhaps more mature Jews; and (3) to state a principle regarding law-keeping in general that could best be illustrated by the counter-example of the Jewish tendency to go back under the Old Testament law.]
14 I am debtor both to Greeks and to Barbarians, both to the wise and to the foolish.
15 So, as much as in me is, I am ready to preach the gospel to you also that are in Rome.
[The word Barbarian has come to infer some a lack of civilization; this was not the case with its usage here; nor is it to be inferred that it correlates with the "wise and the foolish" appearing in the next part of the verse. The use of the Greek word (barbarois) in the first century merely meant someone who did not speak Greek, and hence its usage here was to include all persons, as would the phrase Jews and Gentiles. Similarly wise and foolish has the same connotation of being inclusive, as would rich and poor.]
15 So, as much as in me is, I am ready to preach the gospel to you also that are in Rome.
[This verse carries with it the necessary inference that the "gospel" is not just to be preached to those who are not converted, but since the book is addressed to Christians, if Paul were to preach the gospel to them, it would be equally applicable to Christians. This is further evidence against those who would define the gospel to be limited to a certain set of first principles, as some misuse 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 to teach it the gospel is limited to only the doctrines stated there. Paul was writing a part of the gospel to them in this letter. But he also wanted to preach the gospel, not only to those who had not heard it, but also to lead those who had obeyed it to further maturity. Such preaching and study is required by everyone no matter what our spiritual state might be.]
16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believes; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
[This and verse 17 are critical to our understanding of the entire letter. "Power" is from dudamis -- the word from which we get our word dynamite (we state this only to emphasize the degree and intensity of the use of this word). "Powers" is used in the New Testament to refer to miracles (among other words -- e.g., wonders, signs). However, there is nothing inherently miraculous (supernatural) about the gospel other than its original revelation and confirmation. Since it is now both revealed and confirmed, it can be conveyed from one person to another by natural means, either orally or in writing. But this gives it no less power -- regardless of how it is conveyed, it is still the power of God unto salvation if we will but let it be. To restrict the gospel to be any subset of the New Testament is to state that the rest of the New Testament is not part of the power of God unto salvation -- and this is clearly an attempt to minimize the necessity for obedience to all that God has given us, and to deny our need for obedience faith (see Matthew 4:4; Revelation 22:19).]
[We cannot have the living faith described in James 2:14-26 without availing ourselves of the full power of God unto salvation. This is the Bible definition of the words faith or belief. Belief/faith is not a passive mental process. Understanding this Bible definition of faith is essential to our having the right understanding of the meaning of these faith/belief as they appear throughout the New Testament. Without this understanding much of the New Testament becomes worthless to us, since these words are used intensively throughout the New Testament, and if we neglect their full impact, we cannot hope to understand the New Testament.]
[There can be no doubt that Verse 16 is teaching belief as a condition of salvation. While it is not the ONLY condition of salvation, it certainly is essential to salvation. To all men that believe -- this was an important concept to a people who might think of themselves as being superior to others. The Romans, for example, because they were the rulers of the world. Probably more applicable, many Jews continued to feel that they were still God's chosen people, and many who are not Jews still attribute this to them. Others of particular races feel that their race is chosen by God today. The New Testament dispels this fallacy in many places, to the point that to hold such a prideful belief is sinful. Faith is the great equalizer: not to everyone, but "to everyone that believes." So this verse is also proclaiming the universal applicability of the gospel -- to all people everywhere.]
17 For therein is revealed righteousness of God from faith unto faith: as it is written, But the righteous shall live by faith.
[This is a complex and potentially confusing statement, and the tendency of many translators and commentators is to reason that Paul was just throwing words around in a feel-good type of way, and we are OK as long as we get the general idea. Such a frivolous approach to Biblical interpretation is totally without merit. Difficult passages are given to us to force us to grapple with complex thoughts, to meditate deeply upon them, and ultimately to enable us to arrive at more accurate perceptions of God's truth. The Holy Spirit gave Paul these words (1 Cor. 2), and thus, they are to be understood. Let us subdivide this sentence in an attempt to capture its true essence.
The "righteousness of God" in these contexts is synonymous with the content of the gospel itself, since it is by faith in Jesus that his blood cleanses our sin, and thus we become righteous by the righteousness of God (obeying the gospel). This is the contrast that is going to be made throughout most of the letter, so it is good that we understand it now. When we see "righteousness of God" we should think "gospel," which we know is the power OF GOD (not man) unto salvation. It is a system of faith, but what does it produce? Is faith an end in itself? NO -- it is the spiritual ingesting of the gospel that leads us to the faith required by God (faithfulness), i.e., the righteous do not just HAVE faith, they LIVE by faith.]
18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hinder the truth in unrighteousness;
[This initiates a very much different train of thought; but it is connected as the antithesis of the righteousness of God. It essentially the reason that a "righteousness of God" is necessary. Thus, "righteousness of God" can be contrasted with "unrighteousness of Satan" or in this context unqualified unrighteousness in general.]
19 because that which is known of God is manifest in them; for God manifested it unto them.
20 For the invisible things of him since the creation of the world are clearly seen, being perceived through the things that are made, (even) his everlasting power and divinity; that they may be without excuse:
21 because that, knowing God, they glorified him not as God, neither gave thanks; but became vain in their reasoning, and their senseless heart was darkened.
[The bible never attempts to prove the existence of God; and there is no reason that we should think that we have to. Men are mistaken to believe that proving the existence of God is a requirement of Christians (or any faith system). The existence of a superior power and the knowledge of this existence is assumed by biblical writers to be known to all men; and it is known to all men. The fact that they deny it makes this no less a reality. The heavens declare the glory of God as do countless other things that we know that we cannot fathom. For example we can say the word "infinity," but we cannot fathom it. We cannot fathom that there is no end to the heavens -- they go on forever. But in our humanistic way, with all of our necessities provided to us, we have grown beyond the need to humble ourselves. Humanism teaches that it is up to us and humanity alone to solve all of our problems. And for shame if we expose your weaknesses in having faith in God. See that now is not the first time that this has happened, and Paul reviews the process well. Generally, instead of humbling ourselves, we declare that we ARE god; we must be because there is nothing greater than us. We fail to see the need for a creator or a sustainer of the universe. The thought is that it all just happened by chance, and it is expect to always be as it currently is. Clearly Paul is talking about the Gentiles of his time here who made their own gods as we see reading on.]
22 Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,
23 and changed the glory of the incorruptible God for the likeness of an image of corruptible man, and of birds, and four-footed beasts, and creeping things.
[And yet, they did not have a clue as to how utterly stupid -- totally devoid of any logic or reasonableness -- these actions were. We will see why as we continue Chapter 1.]
24 Wherefore God gave them up in the lusts of their hearts unto uncleanness, that their bodies should be dishonored among themselves:
25 for that they exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.
[Idols of gold, silver and wood back then, humankind now. The creature served and worshiped is at least alive, but there is still no excuse. "Wherefore God gave them up." Lets survey the process. God gave them ample evidence of his power and divinity. They were determined to ignore that. So what did they do? Needing something to worship, they created their idols. Today the creation is humanism and evolution -- ways to rationalize away the existence of God altogether. When these things are ingrained into the children over several generations, it goes to seed and they accept these things as being fact and persecute those who would consider the evidence differently. Upon being so foolish, proud and self-serving, God gave them up. When we see people living in such a self-destructive and unreasonable ways, we cannot figure it out on a purely rational basis. But the answer it that when they became hopeless, God gave them up. If there is no God then why can't everyone do whatever pleases them, and these things do not stop with the normal sense of what was at one time frowned on and considered immoral. No, now they let their imaginations run wild to the point of abusing their own bodies in a large variety of ways to say nothing of what they do to children and others who are helpless before them. These verses teach that God will make them to be of such a deplorable nature that their sin should be obvious to all. The problem is, so many of these sins are now considered by our society to be virtues. If we cannot see the frustration of God in this and wonder just how long He will allow it to continue it can only be because we are part of the problem.]
26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile passions: for their women changed the natural use into that which is against nature:
27 and likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another, men with men working unseemliness, and receiving in themselves that recompense of their error which was due.
[A second level of being given up by God leads to all types of sexual immorality. This is often defended by those who claim that certain people who were born into the wrong bodies cannot help it. But if you read closely you will see that this is not what is being talked about. See the words, "changed" and "leaving the natural use." This is talking of those who willfully changed from that which is natural and commanded to that which is not. We are in great sympathy for those who are born with genetic issues, but we would advise them through prayer to ask God for spiritual help in coping with these issues.]
28 And even as they refused to have God in (their) knowledge, God gave them up unto a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not fitting;
29 being filled with all unrighteousness, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness; full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, malignity; whisperers,
30 backbiters, hateful to God, insolent, haughty, boastful, inventors of evil things, disobedient to parents,
31 without understanding, covenant-breakers, without natural affection, unmerciful:
[This list is not complete but gives a good idea of the level of sin to which those who give up God will eventually decline. This can be viewed as a third level of being given up by God, and it shows the depths of degradation that people will be allowed to descend. Or perhaps, worse than that, at some point there will be no turning back because they have been given up by God. The lesson here is simple: if you can repent at this point, by all means do it. Do not continue in your sin, and especially be looking for worse ways that you can violate God's laws. While you seek pleasure, know for a fact that the short term pleasure you might receive will not be worth the long term consequences both in this life, but especially in the life to come.]
32 who, knowing the ordinance of God, that they that practice such things are worthy of death, not only do the same, but also consent with them that practice them.
[Perhaps not a necessary implication, but an implication of this sentence nonetheless is the fact that those who stand on the sidelines and cheer on those in gross degradation are worse than those who actually practice them. How can this be? For one thing those who do not practice them may well be guilty of hypocrisy. Perhaps they are pretending that they do not practice these things but in reality they approve of them. There is a sense that they could be more guilty (if such is even possible) because without the consent of this elite society itself might be able to discipline the gross offenders much more effectively,]
[Summary of Chapter one. Keep in that mind Paul's goal here is to get everyone to realize how much our own righteousness is lacking, and thus how much we need to depend on the "righteousness of God" for our salvation. This system of faith is described for us in the gospel (1:16-17). Going forward, the "righteousness of God" will also be referenced by the one word: "faith" or "the faith." This is in opposition to our attempt to save ourselves, which will be encapsulated in the word "works." But we are getting ahead of ourselves. Paul condemned the Gentiles in this chapter, and all of the Jews were probably quite pleased with this and nodding their heads in agreement. He has them just where he wants them as he is about to spring his trap on them.]
Romans 2
2:1 Wherefore thou art without excuse, O man, whosoever you are that judge: for wherein thou judges another, you condemn yourself; for you that judge practice the same things.
2 And we know that the judgment of God is according to truth against them that practice such things.
3 And reckon you this, O man, who judges them that practice such things, and do the same, that you shalt escape the judgment of God?
[Paul uses a lot of rhetorical questions to make the points. Surely the Jews were looking down on the terrible Gentile practices listed at the end of Chapter 1 ... but did they have a right to do this? Or, for that matter, do we? For, I am sure that we were right there with the Jews while reading the first chapter and perhaps like the Pharisee of Luke 18:10-11 saying: "I thank thee, that I am not as the rest of men, extortioners, unjust, adulterers,..." Well, I am like them and so are you. Our sins might not be the same, but sin is sin. So the words of these verses are talking to every one of us, but they seem calculated by Paul to spring a trap on the Jews in Rome who may have felt immune to sin.]
4 Or do you despise the riches of his goodness and forbearance and longsuffering, not knowing that the goodness of God leads you to repentance?
[Goodness of God ... is this not the same as the Righteousness of God (see 1:17)? There it say that this righteousness of God is described in the gospel? And indeed, it is the gospel that leads us to repentance, in response to the rhetorical question. Of course, hearing the gospel should lead us to repent of our sins and turn to God's ways. Remember Paul is speaking to believers here ... those who were separated from the world unto Christ. So as righteous as they (and we) might be, we still fall far short of the standard that is Christ. This is what Paul is trying to get them to see, since the Jews in particular seemed to be wanting to go back and be justified by the works of the Old Testament law.]
5 but after thy hardness and impenitent heart treasurest up for thyself wrath in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God;
6 who will render to every man according to his works:
7 to them that by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and incorruption, eternal life:
8 but unto them that are factious, and obey not the truth, but obey unrighteousness, (shall be) wrath and indignation,
9 tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that works evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Greek;
10 but glory and honor and peace to every man that works good, to the Jew first, and also to the Greek:
11 for there is no respect of persons with God.
[You are not going to be saved just because you are a Jew. Or because you joined the "right" religious organization (which is far more applicable in our cases since many are taught that salvation is attained by being part of some organization). What is the condition here? Having "...patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and incorruption... to every man that works good, ..." Is that work? Surely it is not faith only (if there could be such a thing). It is active dedication -- no real difference from any other statement of the conditions of salvation. We will see them expressed in many ways throughout the book of Romans.]
[Is Paul so quickly contradicting himself? Did he not teach in the first chapter that salvation was of faith and not of works? The answer is a resounding NO when the "righteousness of God" by which we are saved is understood in light of Habakkuk 2:4. We will not repeat the arguments of Romans 1:17 above. But we will add that which is summarized so well in James 2:14-26: there is no inconsistency between true living faith and the inevitable works that HAVE TO result from it. They result not because they are systematically commanded, but because they are a normal product of of the behavior of those who have given themselves to Jesus Christ (Galatians 2:20; Philippians 1:21).]
[Conider verse 11 ... do we believe this? What would this world be like if everyone believed it? Recall from Acts ... Acts 10:34-35 ...
34 And Peter opened his mouth and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons:
35 but in every nation he that fears him, and works righteousness, is acceptable to him.
Is Peter's condition here any different from that given by Paul? Not at all -- just different ways of saying the same thing. All mankind -- to the Jew first, but also to the Greek. Paul here is fighting prejudice -- the tendency to think "we are better" because of our heritage, race, nationality, economic standing whatever ... We should be able to see, if not in ourselves then in those around us, this tendency to be defensive when it comes to any insult to whatever group that we might consider ourselves to be part of. This is used by money/power hungry leaders to control people quite effectively. We would all do well if we were to consider ourselves as God does -- just as human beings and not of any sub-classification. This is what Paul is saying when he says "there is no respect of persons with God." This was a lesson that the Jews needed, but one that would be of use to the Gentiles as well. A failure to recognize it is a problem regardless. And to think it is any less a problem today is the epitome of naivety.]
[Consider verses 12-16 collectively first:]
Romans 2:12-16
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without the law: and as many as have sinned under the law shall be judged by the law;
13 for not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified:
14 (for when Gentiles that have not the law do by nature the things of the law, these, not having the law, are the law unto themselves;
15 in that they show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness therewith, and their thoughts one with another accusing or else excusing them)
16 in the day when God shall judge the secrets of men, according to my gospel, by Jesus Christ.
[Now we will remove the parenthetical to analyze the meaning.]
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without the law: and as many as have sinned under the law shall be judged by the law;
13 for not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified:
["Doers" -- would not these be workers? In one sense, yes; in another sense, no. They are doers of what God wants them to do, not of their own desires. They are doers out of faith in God, and not trusting in their own righteousness nor thinking that they can in any way merit their salvation. But it is clear here that Paul is referring to the Old Testament law, in this case the law of Moses, since that is what the Jews were under at the time of Christ.]
13 ... but the doers of the law shall be justified: (parenthetical ignored)
16 in the day when God shall judge the secrets of men, according to my gospel, by Jesus Christ.
[The judgment will be carried out by Jesus Christ and it will involve a full disclosure of all of the secrets of men. It is at this time (and in most cases, not before) that they will be shown to be justified by their behavior. Now for the parenthetical ...]
14 (for when Gentiles that have not the law do by nature the things of the law, these, not having the law, are the law unto themselves;
15 in that they show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness therewith, and their thoughts one with another accusing or else excusing them)
[This must have come as a shock to the Jews who figured that they were acceptable to God simply by virtue of their birthright -- children of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. This is again reiterating that we are not judged as a race or a nation (or as it would apply today -- even as a church or other religious organization). We are judged by God as individuals. So, even during the time of the Mosaic law, there were some Gentiles who were doing their best to keep God's law as well as they knew it, and they were approved of God. But this is still being directed toward the Jews at Rome, as we can see from the next verse ...]
17 But if thou bearest the name of a Jew, and restest upon the law, and gloriest in God,
18 and knowest his will, and approvest the things that are excellent, being instructed out of the law,
19 and art confident that thou thyself art a guide of the blind, a light of them that are in darkness,
20 a corrector of the foolish, a teacher of babes, having in the law the form of knowledge and of the truth;
21 thou therefore that teachest another, teachest thou not thyself? thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal?
22 thou that sayest a man should not commit adultery, dost thou commit adultery? thou that abhorrest idols, dost thou rob temples?
23 thou who gloriest in the law, through thy transgression of the law dishonorest thou God?
24 For the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles because of you, even as it is written.
[Perhaps referring to Isa 52:5 or Ezek 36:22-23. They knew. He did not need to quote it. And we all know similarly that we have not come up to the standard of Jesus Christ. We teach the truth and try to promote it to the best of our abilities. But if we succeed, it is because of the power of the truth that we teach, not because of the goodness of the messengers. We all sin everyday. If they were honest with themselves, they would see this. Paul is just turning the light onto it.]
[This last thought was that God was being blasphemed among the Gentiles because of the sins of the Jews. Basically, after the greeting, Paul has been trying to convince both the Gentiles and the Jews that individually they were guilty of sin and thus, worthy of death and eternal separation from God. Further trying to be justified by "man's righteousness" was and is hopeless. Thus, we need God's righteous (or "the righteousness of God") if we are going to be saved. That righteousness is revealed in the gospel (Rom. 1:16). So then, what good is it being a Jew? What good is circumcision?]
25 For circumcision indeed profiteth, if thou be a doer of the law: but if thou be a transgressor of the law, thy circumcision is become uncircumcision.
[Meeting one technicality of the law does not make you immune to the rest of it. The converse is not true however. One sin and the law is of no effect as far as its role in salvation (assuming that was ever intended).]
26 If therefore the uncircumcision keep the ordinances of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be reckoned for circumcision?
[Speaking of course in a relative sense. Wouldn't the Gentile have as much claim to salvation as the Jew if, in fact, salvation was through law keeping.]
27 and shall not the uncircumcision which is by nature, if it fulfil the law, judge thee, who with the letter and circumcision art a transgressor of the law?
[Paul has them leaning against the Gentiles in Chapter 1, and now he is springing the trap showing them that the finger they were pointing at the Gentiles applies equally well to themselves (and by obvious extension, to all of us).]
28 For he is not a Jew who is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision which is outward in the flesh:
29 but he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
[This also will be a recurring theme. Later on he will say: "They are not all Israel who are of Israel..." using the word Israel first in the spiritual sense and then in the physical sense. God's chosen people are no longer the Jews, or any nation for that matter. God's chosen are those who have listened to and responded to God call to enter into the Kingdom of heaven. This is made quite clear in Galatians 3:29: "And if ye are Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, heirs according to promise." The motivation of those who are Christ's is not just in letter-keeping, checking the boxes, doing what they have to do. Their motivation is much higher than that, and it leads to a much higher level of obedience. Contrast the love of a woman who loves and chooses the man whom she will marry as opposed to the arranged marriage to a stranger. Or perhaps a better example is the worker who does the bare minimum so he will not get fired as opposed to the worker that does everything that he can to see that the company succeeds. The second is not acceptable because he has disregarded the law of the boss; he is given a promotion because the boss does not have to spend all of his time watching him. It is in the spirit, not in the letter. This is not license to disregard the laws of God; it is the motivation to keep them, but well beyond the mere letter.]
[In chapter 1 Paul showed how evil the vast majority of the Gentiles had gotten, and in Chapter 2 he shows that the Jews are essentially in the same boat. No one could honestly argue with him, although we know that there were some who were relatively righteous and acceptable to God during this time. The major point will be that this "relative righteousness" is not sufficient. God has providing something else -- he will get to that at the end of Chapter 3, but he is committed first to drive home the point that they cannot be saved by their own righteousness.]
Romans 3
3:1 What advantage then hath the Jew? or what is the profit of circumcision?
[Having sprung the trap on the Jews and potentially convincing them that they are not superior in their efforts to save themselves than the Gentiles, Paul anticipates this questions, which he will answer in this chapter. Restated, the question is: If the Jews are in the same boat as the Gentiles, then what advantages did the Jews have as being "God's chosen people?"]
2 Much every way: first of all, that they were entrusted with the oracles of God.
[Should they not consider this a great privilege? Should not we? But perhaps they considered it a great burden and lust after the Gentiles for not being so constrained. This is the typical thinking of the worldly mind, the mindset of those "without faith" -- to use the term that Paul uses in the next verse.]
3 For what if some were without faith? shall their want of faith make of none effect the faithfulness of God?
[God's laws are only effectual in bringing happiness to mankind if they are obeyed; in other words if they are met with faith in those to whom they are given. God is totally faithful and cannot lie. He is faithful and will keep all of His promises. The fact that most all of these promises were conditional, and the Jews did not keep their part of the conditions, meant that often they did not receive what was promised. Neither did they receive the immediate benefits that obedience would bring. They were unfaithful, but that was not God's fault.]
4 May it never be: yea, let God be found true, but every man a liar; as it is written, That thou might be justified in thy words, And might prevail when thou comest into judgment.
[Many versions have the term "God forbid" in the most absolute negative responses to Paul's rhetorical questions (e.g., 3:4; 3:6; 3:31; 6:2; 6:15; 7:7; 7:13; 9:14; 11:1, 11;11 and also Lk. 20:16; 1 Cor 6:15; Gal 2:17 and Gal 3:21). This must have been the most negative expression that the translators could think of. The actual Greek words (Strong's numbers) are mee (3361) and genoito (1096). Neither of these words is ever translated either "God" of "forbid." We commend those versions that recognized this and translated this term according the the following: (1) Certainly not - NKJV and TEV; (2) not at all - NIV; (3) by no means - RSV and NRSV; and (4) may it never be - NASB and NASU. We have adopted this last one in consistency with the American Standard tradition, since most of our scripture references are ASV. To use a term that unnecessarily calls upon the name of God seems to us to be way outside of the latitude that translators should be given. This comment will not be repeated when this term is encountered in other passages within the book of Romans.]
[Of course, Paul's question was a rhetorical one that would not be in dispute with either Jew or Gentile believer, and recall that Paul is writing to believers. At that point it will be obvious what the truth is, and apparently that is important to God -- that those beings He has created with free will (after His image) should know the truth and that He always speaks the truth. "Let God be find true, but every man a liar" are Paul's words (given by the Holy Spirit, of course), and they effectively state in a comparison between God and man, we should always trust in God. This is not a relative thing -- God is always truthful. The degree to which men are liars, of course, is relative; however, since we are all guilty of deception at times, it is not hyperbole to say that all men are liars. The words written are from Psalms 54:4, where David was in agony bemoaning his sin with Bathsheba and against Uriah and the entire nation of Israel. David essentially was whole-heartedly accepting the punishments that God was meting out to him and, in essence, praising God despite his sinful condition, which could only be remedied by God's forgiveness, and ultimately the blood of Christ.]
5 But if our unrighteousness commendeth the righteousness of God, what shall we say? Is God unrighteous who visiteth with wrath? (I speak after the manner of men.)
[Is this the way God wants to be magnified? ... in contrast to us? He will be thus glorified if we do not submit to Him. But He would much rather be glorified by our obedience, as He was by Christ's. It appears that there were those who were trying to abuse the grace of God and the faith by teaching that God is glorified in our sin, so there is no problem with our continuing in it. This is much like the practical consequences of the "faith-only" movement today since it seems to place a stigma in our doing anything to obey God's commands. They say if we are obedient to God's plan of salvation we do that we are not trusting in God to save us by faith-only. Of course, the bible nowhere teaches faith-only, and in fact is totally contrary to the truth taught in James 2:14-26. While such a teaching appears to be absurd to those who believe all of the gospel, we should recognize that it is not a recent invention, and by the teachings of this chapter and also Romans 6, seemed to be a rather prevalent misconception in the first century. The final rhetorical question posed makes it clear that such a teaching would put a premium on sin, and thus make God unrighteous. It would, in fact, encourage the worst types of sin -- those discussed in the second half of Chapter 1. No doubt faith-only must take a large part of the credit for the degradation that seems to be getting worse in our society today.]
6 Absolutely not: for then how shall God judge the world?
[If sin is good because it glorifies God, then how could he judge the sinner?]
7 But if the truth of God through my lie abounded unto his glory, why am I also still judged as a sinner?
8 and why not (as we are slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say), Let us do evil, that good may come? whose condemnation is just.
[Work backward -- the "condemnation is just" to those who make these false accusations against Paul. They were slanderously saying that he taught that God's grace would cover all sin, so he was teaching that we can do evil that good may come. This was really a clever half (or maybe 0.00001%) truth that was being exploited by the enemies of Paul and the gospel. God's grace and his willingness to forgive out sins are realities. But to take these true spiritual realities and state that they encourage sin is a travesty of the truth. If done in sincerity it would show a total misunderstanding of the gospel, for its intent is to make men far more virtuous than the Old Testament laws ever could. Indeed, those promoting such a ploy will be condemned for it, and their condemnation is just. They could be teaching is for two reasons: (1) they did not want to abide by God's will, and thus asserted that Paul was teaching what they were practicing; or (2) as a criticism of Paul especially by the Judaizers, who generally tried to portray Paul as being lawless (which we know is far from the truth). It seems the latter is more probable since they were slandering Paul, thus recognizing what they were saying was not true. Their motivations are the same as the motivations of those who crucified Jesus.]
9 What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we before laid to the charge both of Jews and Greeks, that they are all under sin;
[Paul takes his place with the Jews. Thus, we = Jews; and they = Gentiles. The Jews had the oracles of God; but did that make them better? He answers this question next.]
10 as it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one;
11 There is none that understandeth, There is none that seeketh after God;
12 They have all turned aside, they are together become unprofitable; There is none that doeth good, no, not, so much as one:
13 Their throat is an open sepulchre; With their tongues they have used deceit: The poison of asps is under their lips:
14 Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness:
15 Their feet are swift to shed blood;
16 Destruction and misery are in their ways;
17 And the way of peace have they not known:
18 There is no fear of God before their eyes.
[We feel what Paul was trying to convey here is a simple truth. He reiterates it in various ways for emphasis, including the quotations from Old Testament scriptures (Psalms 14:1-3 and 53:1-3). These Psalms were written for the Jews, but the original passages do not seem to be limited to them. At the time of their writing there were "none righteous" of any nationality. Paul is saying something that we too can say today -- things have not changed at all. What the prophets wrote back then is still very much true of mankind today. So, is there no hope? None if we trust in our own righteousness (humanism). But the question will be answered in the remainder of this chapter; i.e., those who are "righteous" are only so because of their subjection to the "righteousness of God" (Rom 1:16-17;10:3).]
[Paul has now presented the problem in fine detail -- all men are sinners and they cannot save themselves. No matter what they contrive, and no matter how righteous it might seem to them, it is pathetically lacking. Now he turns to providing a solution to this problem, which will be the basis for the rest of the letter.]
19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it speaks to them that are under the law; that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may be brought under the judgment of God:
20 because by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified in his sight; for through the law (come) the knowledge of sin.
[This is a reiteration of the purpose of the law. The law was perfect in this regard. It was created by God. It did not have any flaws. But our KNOWING what is sin is not enough. The problem is in mankind's determination to disregard God's sense of righteousness. A law was needed to show that no flesh could be justified by perfect law keeping; i.e., to bring about a better knowledge of what is right and what is wrong.]
21 But now apart from law righteousness of God hath been manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
22 even righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ unto all them that believe; for there is no distinction;
23 for all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God;
[So, since we are all in the same boat, we all need the same salvation. Note the term "righteousness of God" -- recall what that is: Rom 1:16-17 "For I am not ashamed of the gospel: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek. For therein is revealed righteousness of God from faith unto faith: as it is written, But the righteous shall live by faith." (See the detailed explanation in 1:16-17.) The righteousness of God is that which is revealed in the gospel of Jesus Christ; it is not the fact that God is righteous. Instead it is that system of faith (the gospel) that brings about virtual righteousness to those who will live by it. It is not the fact that "God is righteous" although for sure that has to be part of it. But what he is contrasting the "righteousness of God" with here is the "righteousness of man." Clearly we cannot be saved by any system of righteousness devised by men. And, since the law was nailed to the cross with Christ (Colossians 2:14), any attempt to go back and obtain righteousness by it would be rebellion against Christ. In this case it was probably being promoted by the Judiazers at Rome in an attempt to maintain the power of the Jewish religious establishment, making their sin of usurping God's authority even worse.]
[Note that we have deleted the articles "a" and "the" from verses 21 and 22 where they do not appear in the Greek interlinears -- please check that out if you have one. The article "a" would imply that there are others, while the article "the" would imply that there is only one. Both modify the meaning of the term and are best omitted so what we can interpret these terms for ourselves.]
24 being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
25 whom God set forth (to be) a propitiation, through faith, in his blood, to show his righteousness because of the passing over of the sins done aforetime, in the forbearance of God;
[Our sins must be forgiven and the gospel tells us how that is accomplished. When we yield ourselves to it (i.e., obey it -- see 2 Thes. 1:8 and 1 Pet. 4:17), we are exhibiting faith in righteousness of God and not our own righteousness. Do we deserve to have our sins forgiven? No, this is accomplished by the grace of God through faith. "His righteousness" in this context could have two equally valid meanings, and this well could be a play on words by Paul to use them both simultaneously. It could be talking God's righteousness in contrast with the term God's unrighteousness used in verse 5 of this chapter. Equally, this is talking about the gospel, God's power unto salvation, since it is by this same faith in the blood of Christ that resulted in "the passing over of sins done aforetime" (i.e., before the cross). One of the major subthemes of the book of Hebrews is that this saving power goes in both time directions. If we substitute "the power of the gospel" for "his righteousness" in verse 25 it fits perfectly. We believe that both meanings are being concurrently presented here, and similarly moving forward to the next verse.]
26 for the showing, (I say), of his righteousness at this present season: that he might himself be just, and the justifier of him that hath faith in Jesus.
27 Where then is the glorying? It is excluded. By what manner of law? of works? Nay: but by a law of faith.
[This "law of faith" is what we have referred as a "system of faith," or what Jude calls "the faith" in Jude 3. It can also be seen from the Greek that Paul was talking about "obedience to the faith" in Romans 1:5 as opposed to most translations that render it a nebulous "obedience of faith." We dare not regard the gospel as a replacement for the Old Testament law. We can no more keep the entire "law of faith" perfectly than we can the OT law. In fact, the loftier ideals of the law of faith make it even more difficult (impossible) to completely attain. However, if we give ourselves to it, to what we know we can do, and strive to keep all of it, then we are subjecting ourselves to God's righteousness and not our own; and our sins will be forgiven. This will be taken up in more detail in the second half of Chapter 7.]
28 We reckon therefore that a man is justified by faith apart from the works of the law.
[The word faith here is used to refer to all that has been defined above ... we cannot invent our own definition of it to suit our liking. The best definition of faith is obtained by reading the first three chapters of Romans. Also, Hebrews 11 defines what faith is by giving examples. Here Paul qualifies the word "works" -- not just any works, but the "works of the law" (which is talking about the Law of Moses specifically at this point, since this is what the Judaizers were promoting as an alternative to righteousness of God). But surely we can generalize this to say that if any system of works becomes like the "works of the law," it would equally be disqualified as being able to bring about salvation. Anything that we could imagine that we have accomplished so that we think "God owes us salvation" would be disqualified. Anything for which we are proud would be disqualified, including faith-only (however that is defined). But this does not mean that God does not have a law for us today. Having a law and our being saved by totally keeping that law are two entirely different things. Clearly a law exists for us today; it was called "a law of faith" in the previous verse. Also see 1 Corinthians 9:21, and see "Not Saved by Works."]
29 Or is God (the God) of Jews only? is he not (the God) of Gentiles also? Yea, of Gentiles also:
30 if so be that God is one, and he shall justify the circumcision by faith, and the uncircumcision through {the Greek tees} faith.
[The context indicates that there cannot be a difference between how the Jews and the Gentiles are justified. If they are justified, it will be as individuals and not as groups. Those who are saved are justified by righteousness of God as revealed in the gospel (1:16-17). But Paul might be trying to communicate some subtle difference here by using two different Greek prepositions (by and through), and also by using an article before the second faith occurrence. When we see the words faith used together in a seemingly different sense, we should suspect that perhaps the two different meanings of the word faith, discussed in connection with 1:17 might be in play. In this case the Jews knew the Old Testament and thus should have a working familiarity with the concept of salvation (see 2 Timothy 3:16-17). Thus, they would not need so much to learn it as to accept it and believe it. So their faith in this context might be talking about their putting their faith in the teachings of Jesus Christ, which should be fairly well known to them. So they are justified by such faith. On the other hand, if the Gentiles were ignorant of the details of the gospel, they would need to learn "the faith" in order to be justified. So they would be justified through this faith system, called "the faith" in Jude 3. Our authority for inserting the word "the" before the word "faith" in the second usage are common interlinears that are easily accessible today. Why the translators ignored this subtlety is unknown, except for the fact that they tend to copy off of each other so as not to rock their academic boats. The NIV and NRSV go so far as to say "through that same faith," lest their readers not recognize their hidden agendas. Of course, we know from other passages that the gospel is the same for all; but Paul seems to be at least hinting at the fact that in the application of the gospel there might be a different process for the Gentiles than from the Jews. Our discussion here would be that the difference is merely in the learning process, and once the same gospel is understood by both, they were both subject to it in exactly the same way.]
31 Do we then make the law of none effect through faith? Absolutely not: nay, we establish the law.
[We will see as we go on that Paul is taking obedience to a whole new level in that he is getting to what motivates us to be obedient. It is not just to qualify -- to gain a prize. It is because we trust that the revealed word of God is in our best interests both now and in eternity; and we know He will keep his promises. It is because we come to know that a life in Christ is by far that best possible life that we can live on this earth, and that its rewards are thus both temporal and eternal (see Mark 10:30).]
[Now that Paul has given the remedy -- "righteousness of God" -- he goes on to give additional evidence that salvation is not to be found in the Old Testament law. It is hard to imagine Paul spending so much time on this if this was not a problem at Rome. Either the Jews were trying to impose this law, or perhaps the Gentiles did not feel as competent in the scriptures, since they were not as schooled in them as were the Jews among them. Either way, this next chapter seems to be pointed more at the Jews and providing evidence to them by showing the precedents for this new system of faith, the gospel.]
Romans 4
4:1 What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather, hath found according to the flesh?
2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not toward God.
[If, in fact, his behavior was perfectly righteous, then he could glory in himself and declare to God that God owed him salvation as the reasonable compensation for his works. So, his glorying would be in himself and not in God. We know, of course, that Abraham was not perfect in his behavior, and neither are any of us.]
3 For what saith the scripture? And Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned unto him for righteousness.
[Genesis 15:6. The event was when Abraham went to God with regard to the issue of his not being given a heir of his own seed. He was getting old and it seemed as though the only fulfillment of the promise could be the son of Sarah's handmaiden. God showed him the stars in the heavens and told him that from his own seed would come that number of people. Gen. 15:6: "And he believed in the LORD. And He reckoned it to him for righteousness." This event shows that what Abraham was believing was something that to him at this point in time seemed more than unlikely; it seemed impossible. The results of Abraham's faith is illustrated for us in Hebrews 11. Abraham was ready and willing to do whatever God appointed him to do -- his attitude was one of total subjection to God. This can hardly be compared to what is called faith-only today. Clearly it was not when viewed in terms of the context and all that the bible says about the faithfulness of Abraham.]
4 Now to him that works, the reward is not reckoned as of grace, but as of debt.
5 But to him that works not, but believes on him that justifies the ungodly, his faith is reckoned for righteousness.
[This is not talking about the value of works in general, but rather our attempt to be saved by our own power as opposed to the power of God (1:16). "Works" here is short for "earns his salvation" -- this is speaking accommodatively, and is not a statement that such is possible. "Works not" is short for "does not depend on himself but has faith in God's righteousness (1:17)." Abraham realized that the blessings from God were not things he had worked for -- he would never imagine that God owed him the things that were promised to him. Certainly he viewed the blessing of God as a matter of God's grace, and not a matter of debt. But this, of course, did not deter Abraham from being obedient to God. Abraham should stand as the example here. Surely, "works not" here cannot mean that Abraham was devoid of any works of obedience at all. That is a totally unreasonable position to take with regard to someone who was willing to sacrifice his only son through whom the promises were given. The contrast is not between obedience and disobedience; it is between the concept of earning one's salvation as opposed to receiving it as a free gift of God out of God's grace. Free, yet with some conditions, one of them being faith and all that this word implies, which is spelled out quite well in Hebrews 11. Those who would state that acts of obedience on our part show a lack of faith make God's commands sinful, something that is clearly condemned immediately above in this context. Let us try to understand exactly what Paul is trying to get across to us as opposed to some predefined doctrine that we are trying to fit it to. Those who use this passage as a license to ignore God's law of faith (Rom 3:27) are condemned in Romans 6:1.]
6 Even as David also pronounces blessing upon the man, unto whom God reckons righteousness apart from works,
7(saying), Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, And whose sins are covered.
[Psalm 32. Note that "apart from works" here again does not mean that those who received these blessings had no works, or that they would not have a strong desire to do the works that are motivated by a living faith (James 2:26). Consider James 2:20-24:
20 But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith apart from works is barren?
21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, in that he offered up Isaac his son upon the altar?
22 You see that faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect;
23 and the scripture was fulfilled which saith, And Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned unto him for righteousness; and he was called the friend of God.
24 Ye see that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
There is absolutely no contradiction here, and it is wrong to pit these two sections of scripture in contrast with each other. No one can be saved by "works only" any more than they can be saved by "faith only." Hebrews 11 shows clearly that those who had faith always (no exceptions) had the works of God as a result. Similarly, the working of God within each of us cannot exist in the absence of faith. So it is not an either-or situation. Not only do faith and works coexist (they are not mutually exclusive), but it is totally impossible for one of them to exist without the other. Repentance, for example, is a condition of forgiveness. The blessed person has done both good and evil works in the past, but having met the conditions of forgiveness, his evil works are covered and forgiven, and "Blessed are they who iniquities are forgiven."]
[Further, allow Psalm 32 to be a commentary on this verse -- please read the entire chapter. In particular, notice:
Psalms 32 verses 3 and 5:
3 "When I kept silence, my bones wasted away through my groaning all the day long. ...
5 I acknowledged my sin unto thee, and mine iniquity did I not hide: I said, I will confess my transgressions unto the LORD; and You forgave the iniquity of my sin."
When David did nothing, God did nothing, and David was condemned and he knew it. Was there some virtue in his doing nothing and just believing (assuming that such is even possible)? No, and David knew it and expressed it in this psalm. His acknowledging his sins and confessing them shows repentance, what many today would erroneously place in the classification of "works." But David does not take the credit for his forgiveness; he gives all of the credit to God. Read verse 5 again and see that David's not being saved by works does not at all mean that David did nothing except believe (we are speaking accomodatively -- we do not mean to imply that it is even possible to do "nothing except believe" it it is a true belief in the promises of God.]
8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not reckon sin.
[Not the sinless man, for Jesus was the only man who was ever perfectly sinless. Nor is it the man who does nothing. But the one who is blessed is the one who has done what God requires in order to obtain forgiveness, and thus the Lord will not reckon sin to that person.]
9 Is this blessing then pronounced upon the circumcision, or upon the uncircumcision also? for we say, To Abraham his faith was reckoned for righteousness.
10 How then was it reckoned? when he was in circumcision, or in uncircumcision? Not in circumcision, but in uncircumcision:
[The statement made above of Abraham's belief being reckoned to him for righteousness was made before the command regarding circumcision was given, and way before the Law of Moses. Paul is arguing that these laws had other purposes than leading men to salvation (God's righteousness: 1:16-17), since this requires forgiveness whereas the OT laws required perfect obedience.]
11 and he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had while he was in uncircumcision; that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be in uncircumcision, that righteousness might be reckoned unto them;
12 and the father of circumcision to them who not only are of the circumcision, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham which he had in uncircumcision.
[Clearly Genesis 15:6 discussed above, occurred prior to Genesis 17:10-11, the point in time when God gave Abraham the covenant of circumcision. Circumcision is analogous to the obedience to the gospel that proceeds out of our faith today (Colossians 2:11-12). It is called "a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had while he was in uncircumcision."
Is the "righteousness of the faith" here the same "righteousness of God" of Romans 1:17? If not then we would have to conclude that his righteousness was not produced by God's will but of Abraham's own doing, which is unthinkable. This tells us that the salvation of Abraham and the salvation of Christians is really not that much different, Jesus Christ being the same yesterday, today and forever (Hebrews 13:8). This is not saying that the laws of God were not changed at certain points in time to suit the purposes for which they were given. But the same thing is required of us today as was required of Abraham; namely, faithfulness. And the term "righteousness of the faith" (of Abraham) here and its use in the next verse (13), "righteousness of faith" without qualification, shows that God had prepared a system of faith for Abraham and his children just as he has for us today.. Paul goes on here to indicate that ultimately the "righteousness of God" would apply to more than just the Jews, "that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be in uncircumcision." So the precedent for the salvation of the gentiles exists since Abraham was, in a sense, an uncircumcised Gentile when God pronounced him righteous.]
13 For not through the law was the promise to Abraham or to his seed that he should be heir of the world, but through the righteousness of faith.
[The "righteousness of faith" can be viewed in two ways: (1) Abraham was pronounced righteous -- not because he was perfectly righteous in keeping some law (any law) of God -- but because he believed God; and (2) Abraham exhibited the righteousness of faith in his own life in that his righteousness proceeded out of his faith (Hebrews 11). While both of these are true, the essence of what Paul is trying to get across here leans more toward the first view, which conforms to 1:16-17. While the gospel had not yet been revealed, the righteousness of faith had, and this is the model that Paul is trying to get his fellow Jews to see.]
[Paul has now established that salvation is not something that we can earn or merit -- or in any way invent for ourselves. It is of God, and he described it as being "the righteousness of God" i.e., the righteousness that is imputed to man by God's plan as described in the gospel (Rom. 1:16). Our justification is not by our own works or even the works of the Old Testament law that was given by God. This is what Paul has generally referenced as "works." As opposed to this is the "righteousness of God," which he has encapsulated into the word faith, indicating the response to it that is required on our part. The "righteousness of God" does us as individuals no good at all unless we believe it, and thus act upon it.]
[Recall that Chapter 4 is basically presenting evidence, mainly to those who might have the tendency to go back under the Law of Moses, that salvation was not to be found there. Generally he refers to this as "the works of the law" or sometimes just "works" or just "law." It is important to see that Paul is generally not using these words in the sense that we might use them today. He is not arguing for anarchy, for example. He is arguing that salvation is from God and according to what God has revealed through Jesus Christ, not through any other way, including the Old Testament law.]
13 For not through the law was the promise to Abraham or to his seed that he should be heir of the world, but through the righteousness of faith.
[This is a bit of overlap -- the discussion on the entire first 13 verses appy here. If necessary, please review and refresh your memory. This is a conclusion based on the fact that the promise to Abraham was made prior to the Law of Moses (obviously), but even prior to God giving Abraham the law of circumcision.]
14 For if they that are of the law are heirs, faith is made void, and the promise is made of none effect:
15 for the law worketh wrath; but where there is no law, neither is there transgression.
["They that are of the law" = those who are living as though the Old Testament law is adequate; specifically, those who were trying to pull the Christians in Rome back under the Old Testament law. Why would we need Christ if salvation was already there? Why did Christ have to die? This system of earning one's salvation has been removed. It never worked, and it never could work. It's purpose was good and just; but it was to bring the world to a point where Christ could serve to bring us salvation through faith -- it was never intended to provide salvation per se.]
16 For this cause (it is) of faith, that (it may be) according to grace; to the end that the promise may be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all
17(as it is written, A father of many nations have I made thee [Genesis 17:5]) before him whom he believed, (even) God, who gives life to the dead, and calls the things that are not, as though they were.
[According to grace -- not something that we earn -- we cannot earn it; it is a gift that is not warranted by our goodness, but given to us when our sins are forgiven. All the seed -- not just that through Isaac and Jacob -- don't forget Ismael and Esau. Great nations came of them as well, and the promise was "through thy seed ALL the nations of the earth would be blessed" -- not just to Jacob (Israel). Taking out the parenthetical: "... Abraham, who is the father of us all before Him whom he believed, God, who gives life to the dead and calls ... (giving praise to God). The word "(even)" is in parenthesis to show it was inserted by the translators. There is no equivalent unique Greek word to the way that we use the word "even" today. While there are some constructs that support this meaning, it is largely the opinion of the translator as to its use and some scholars have objected to the liberty that some take in introducing it (e.g., Winer's cautionary word needs heeding, that "this meaning has been introduced into too many passages" -- from Vine's Expository Dictionary.) In our opinion, it should be ignored here and should be regarded skeptically wheneer it changes some the meaning of a verse.]
[Referring to Abraham ...]
18 Who in hope believed against hope, to the end that he might become a father of many nations, according to that which had been spoken, So shall thy seed be.
19 And without being weakened in faith he considered his own body now as good as dead (he being about a hundred years old), and the deadness of Sarah's womb;
20 yet, looking unto the promise of God, he wavered not through unbelief, but waxed strong through faith, giving glory to God,
21 and being fully assured that what He had promised, He was able also to perform.
[This further defines what faith is. It argues to the extent of his belief. By faith Abraham did what he did (Hebrews 11). Clearly he was not perfect, but he was faithful to God all of his life. To those who would base their faith system on the example of Abraham, we urge them to follow all of Abraham's examples of faithfulness in the entire new life that they have by faith in Jesus Christ. The major problem we see is the changing of the clear New Testament meaning of the word faith to be some mental process often where this definition is pressed to the point of making any behavioral change resulting from this faith to be a lack of faith-only and thus sin. It is never wrong to obey God with the heart.]
22 Wherefore also it was reckoned unto him for righteousness.
[So, even though he was not perfect, he was reckoned as being righteous by God. His faith was reckoned unto him for righteousness, and this is the system of faith that Paul is appealing to in the gospel.]
23 Now it was not written for his sake alone, that it was reckoned unto him;
24 but for our sake also, unto whom it shall be reckoned, who believe on him that raised Jesus our Lord from the dead,
25 who was delivered up for our trespasses, and was raised for our justification.
[This states that God has a far greater purpose in his dealing with Abraham than what the Jews generally understood. He was not just creating a nation of God's chosen people, but he was looking toward the time when the righteousness that is of God would lead to the salvation of all men. I a very real sense, God requires the same thing of us today as He required of Abraham -- faithfulness. Do we have to leave Ur of the Chaldees? Do we have to practice circumcision? Do we have to be willing to sacrifice our sons to the point or lifting the knife against them? If that was what God commanded of us today, then YES. But it is not. No, the specifics of just what it means to be faithful are different in the Christian dispensation. But for sure, like Abraham, faith will lead us to do many things today in service to God, and if those things do not exist then it is only right and proper that we question whether we have saving faith at all. Remember, the system of faith of the New Testament is intended to produce people of a much higher quality of morality and service than that given in the Old Testament. Do we see this working out in our lives today?]
Romans 5
5:1 Being therefore justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ;
[We could have peace under no other circumstances. Justification by faith here is equivalent to being justified by the righteousness of God, i.e., that system of faith revealed to us by God in the gospel.]
2 [Jesus,] through whom also we have had our access by faith into this grace wherein we stand; and we rejoice in hope of the glory of God.
[It is of grace because it is totally not earned or deserved. Our access to this grace is by a true, living faith in the righteousness of God as opposed to our own righteousness.]
3 And not only so, but we also rejoice in our tribulations: knowing that tribulation works stedfastness;
4 and stedfastness, approvedness; and approvedness, hope:
5 and hope putteth not to shame; because the love of God hath been shed abroad in our hearts through the Holy Spirit which was given unto us.
[Rome was not the most accommodating environment for Christians, and Paul anticipates additional tribulations - this will be discussed in much greater detail in Chapter 8. Here he introduces the positive aspects of their being persecuted. And further, the help that God has given to His people in shedding His love for us in our hearts through the Holy Spirit, who is given to all who are obedient (Acts 5:32). Let us not think that this is some miraculous thing, or that it must manifest itself miraculously. Paul is talking to all Christians at Rome, and it is a certainty that they did not all have, nor did they need, miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit. They obtained the Holy Spirit much as Paul did in the early days of his preaching, and that was through his past diligent study of the scriptures. The only thing keeping us from being full of the Holy Spirit today is our refusal to feed on what the Holy Spirit delivered to them, which we now have in the scriptures.]
6 For while we were yet weak, in due season Christ died for the ungodly.
7 For scarcely for a righteous man will one die: for peradventure for the good man some one would even dare to die.
8 But God commendeth his own love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
[This is the essence of the "righteousness of God" as described by the gospel. Salvation is not earned or merited. We in no way could even conceive of what Christ did for us. No man on earth ever come up with such an idea, but even if they did that mere idea would not save them. Christ had to actually die, which he did for us while we were (perhaps some reading still are) in the depths of our sin. We know there are some today who have themselves nailed to a cross so that they can experience what Jesus did. Since God never in any way inferred his good pleasure on those who would do such things, we must echo the words of Paul in Colossians 2:23: "Which things have indeed a show of wisdom in will-worship, and humility, and severity to the body; (but are) not of any value against the indulgence of the flesh."]
9 Much more then, being now justified by his blood, shall we be saved from the wrath (of God) through him.
[He did this for us BEFORE we were justified. Now we are different. Now we (in this case, they, the Roman Christians) are justified by faith. If God did this for us when we were "still sinners" how much more now that we are justified? The contrast here is not between sinful and sinless -- it is between those whose lives are dictated by their own self-will and those who are trying to please God. We will never be perfectly sinless, but clearly there must a difference between pre- and post-justification.]
10 For if, while we were enemies, we were reconciled to God through the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, shall we be saved by his life;
11 and not only so, but we also rejoice in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received the reconciliation.
[Paul speaking to his fellow Christians here is not discussing the "how" of salvation -- he is recognizing the fact that they had done what is necessary to be faithful Christians ... to be reconciled through the grace of God, as described above. Prior to that point they were "enemies" of the cross (Philippians 3:18); now they are reconciled.]
[Paul has established that we are saved by the "righteousness of God," which he has essentially encapsulated into the word "faith" as contrasted with our own righteousness, which he encapsulated into the word "works," seemingly to facilitate his discussion of this contrast. He now wants to show that this was part of God's plan from the beginning, which he does by way of analogy.]
12 Therefore, as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin; and so death passed unto all men, for that all sinned: --
13 for until the law sin was in the world; but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
[Death did not pass unto all men because of Adam's sin; it passed to us because we have all sinned -- maybe not like Adam, but our sins reveal that had we been in Adam/Eve's situation we would have done exactly what they did. Sin is rebellion against God, regardless of what form it takes.]
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the likeness of Adam's transgression, who is a figure of him that was to come.
[The word "as" in verse 12 shows that this is figurative language -- it is not to be taken literally; but it has truth that it is conveying that could not be conveyed without the figurative language -- it is not to hide; it is to reveal. Jesus is an antitype of Adam.]
15 But not as the trespass, so also (is) the free gift. For if by the trespass of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God, and the gift by the grace of the one man, Jesus Christ, abound unto the many.
[Adam's sin brought sin into the world. In a similar (but not identical) sense, the grace of God through the one man Jesus Christ can take it out. But the trespass is not like the free gift of salvation in that what Jesus did far eclipses what Adam did. Note that in both (1) Adam's sin and (2) Jesus' sacrifice to produce the gift of salvation, humans are not just bystanders watching the process go by. We are in sin not because Adam sinned, but because we have sinned. And similarly, we are not saved by default, but by taking those actions that the gospel (righteousness of God: 1:17) spells out for us to take as a result of our faith in Jesus Christ.]
16 And not as through one that sinned, (so) is the gift: for the judgment (came) of one unto condemnation, but the free gift (came) of many trespasses unto justification.
[Similarly, the antitypical analogy being formulated to contrast Adam and Jesus breaks down in another respect. The one sin (Adam's) brought sin into the world, but ultimately it gave rise to all of our sins. However, the one free gift of Jesus shedding his blood on the cross applies to not just one, but to all of our sins, given that we allow the righteousness of God to work in our lives.]
17 For if, by the trespass of the one, death reigned through the one; much more shall they that receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness reign in life through the one, (even) Jesus Christ.
[Here the righteousness of God (see 1:17) is called the gift of righteousness -- there can be no argument that the two are the same; where else would righteousness come from as a gift? See the parallel with verses 8 and 9. Paul's argument is the same. It is an argument from the lesser to the greater; if the lesser is true then the greater has to be true. If God reconciled us to Him while we were still sinners, how much more are we reconciled now that the righteousness of God is alive and active in our lives. If Adam's sin caused death to reign in us, then how much more will the "gift of righteousness" (see 1:17) create spiritual life in us.]
18 So then as through one trespass (the judgment came) unto all men to condemnation; even so through one act of righteousness (the free gift came) unto all men to justification of life.
[This sums up what Paul was expressing in the analogy given above. It is "as through one trespass" -- that is, there is a similarity between the oneness of the sin of Adam and the oneness of the sacrifice of Jesus. This is further explained by Paul in the next verse.]
19 For as through the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the one shall the many be made righteous.
[This cannot be an unconditional statement; if it were then all men would be saved unconditionally (e.g., without faith or any obedience that it produces). If this first clause is literal, then the second would have to be literal as well. So, if there is such a thing as unconditional original sin, then this verse would teach that the obedience of Jesus saves all people unconditionally. But clear passages tell us that salvation is conditional. Again, the word "as" takes out the literal force of this statement. Paul has already established that all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God (Romans 3:23), as well as the futility of our trying to save ourselves by our own righteousness. This analogy demonstrates this truth and the reason for it.]
20 And the law came in besides, that the trespass might abound; but where sin abounded, grace did abound more exceedingly:
21 that, as sin reigned in death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
[Many versions just say "the law entered" or "the law came in." The ASV given here would seem to be more descriptive of the Greek, which implies something in parallel (besides). The Greek word is pareiserchomai
(NT:3922 pareiserchomai; from NT:3844 and NT:1525; to come in alongside, i.e. supervene additionally or steathily. --Biblesoft's New Exhaustive Strong's Numbers and Concordance with Expanded Greek-Hebrew Dictionary. Copyright © 1994, 2003 Biblesoft, Inc. and International Bible Translators, Inc.)]
[The purpose of the law was not to enable us to save ourselves by perfect law keeping. This is true of the Law of Moses or any other law that we might contrive. Salvation is by grace through faith in Jesus Christ, and it can never be accomplished by perfect law keeping. So what was the purpose of the law? To prove this very fact! That sin might be seen to be sin -- "that the trespass might abound," but more importantly, that we might see it aboud and recognize its sordid nature in causing spiritual death. There was/is no remedy for it short of the righteousness of God (1:16-17), and so grace reign's through this righteousness unto eternal life. Apparently the Roman Christians were having a problem with this basic concept, and some had accused Paul of falsehood in this regard. This will be dealt with in the next chapter.]
[The first five chapters have stressed the futility of our trying to save ourselves through any type law keeping, and, in particular, keeping the Law of Moses. We have said that Paul encapsulates the "righteousness of God" with the word "faith," and that this plan of salvation provides the motivation for a dramatic improvement in our behavior that results from living for Jesus once we have been born again (John 3). Chapter 6 describes how our lives should change as a result of this trust.]
Go To Romans 6-10
Go to Romans 6-10
Other Commentaries
[Comments are given in brackets. Often we will say "Paul said" thus and so. Be aware that the bible teaches that Paul was being guided by the Holy Spirit in these writings (1 Corinthians 2). Allow us this (accommodative language) shortcut substitute for the elaboration of "the Holy Spirit said through Paul," which would get quite cumbersome. The degree to which the apostle's thoughts and feelings were allowed to come through in the scriptures is a subject all its own, and when it comes to our attention we will discuss it. However, this makes these writings no less the working of the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit used Paul's expressed feelings to better communicate with us.]
Romans 1
1:1 Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called (to be) an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God,
2 which he promised afore through his prophets in the holy scriptures,
3 concerning his Son, who was born of the seed of David according to the flesh,
4 who was declared (to be) the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead; (even) Jesus Christ our Lord,
5 through whom we received grace and apostleship, unto obedience of faith among all the nations, for his name's sake;
6 among whom are ye also called (to be) Jesus Christ's:
7 To all that are in Rome, beloved of God, called (to be) saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
[We did not want to interrupt the sentence flow above. To summarize what Paul has established here:
- Paul is an apostle in the official sense of that word -- an officially chosen messenger to proclaim the gospel of Jesus Christ. The word gospel means good news. It should be recognized as that body of knowledge that we have in the New Testament. Those who wish to eliminate any part of the New Testament must produce evidence that the part they are excluding is not good news. Since the New Testament is all good news, we will define our use of the word gospel to be synonymous with New Testament.
- God promised the gospel in the Old Testament through His prophets.
- That Good News was concerning God's son Jesus Christ.
- Jesus was born of the seen of David (according to the flesh), which was one of the things the prophets had stated about the messiah.
- Jesus was declared to be the Son of God and thus Divine in nature, God.
- This was declared with power -- a word used in many, if not most, places to refer to the miraculous.
- This power was according to the Holy Spirit.
- This power was expressed by many things, but the one used here to exemplify the power is Jesus' resurrection.
- The apostles received their office through Jesus Christ.
- The purpose of their apostleship was to proclaim the gospel that would produce faith, and faith will always produce obedience (and so, the obedience of faith -- see additional comment on Verse 5 below).
- This gospel would go to all men everywhere -- it would not be restricted by race or nationality or any other human characteristic.
- The Romans that he was writing to were called to be Jesus Christ's, and thus referred to as beloved of God and saints.
- Paul wishes them the grace of God, which is totally essential to our salvation, since we are all sinners. This grace is also which gives to all Christians the knowledge of our privileges to render obedience to Christ, without which we can receive none of His blessings.
- He also wishes them the peace that passes all understanding that can only come from being in Christ.]
[The phrase "obedience of faith" in verse 5 warrants special attention in that this is a term coined by Paul that occurs only two times in the bible, and second being in the next to the last verse of this epistle, but in the last sentence -- thus it is in the first and the last sentence. Coincidence? Neither the Holy Spirit nor Paul would leave such a thing to chance. This is an important and critical phrase for us to understand, and it is reflective of the entire underlying theme of the first 11 chapters. So let us not brush it off.]
[The literal Greek reads "obedience faith" (hupakoeen pistoos) as opposed to the quite ambiguous "obedience of faith" (ASV, NASB and most other common versions) or "obedience to the faith" (KJV, NKJV). (Interestingly, the KJV is inconsistent in its translation, calling it obedience to the faith in 1:5 and obedience of faith in 16:26 -- could it be that the meaning changed? The NKJV is at least consistent with obedience to the faith in both places.) Obedience to the faith is a tempting solution since the word "faith" here is identical to that noun used in Jude 3: "... I was constrained to write unto you exhorting you to contend earnestly for the faith which was once for all delivered unto the saints." And even faith-only proponents admit that faith cannot exist in a vacuum -- there has to be something that is believed. (Their problem is that they go beyond Christ to create a very restricted view of what the object of that belief must be.) In this regard, "the faith" of Jude 3 is the body of information that had been revealed to them by Jesus, first in person and then by his sending the Holy Spirit to them. The problem with the KJV/NKJV translation is that while Jude 3 qualifies faith with an article tee (Strongs 3588), there is no such article (in hupakoeen pistoos) either in the first or last sentence of the book of Romans.]
[Our proposed solution is twofold:
- Accept the direct Greek translation to apply and let obedience by the adjective qualifier of the word faith. This admits to the fact that there could be different types or degrees of faith, which is confirmed by James 2:14-26 and other references such as John 12:42. Clearly these deficient varieties of faith were NOT the obedience faith that Paul is appealing to.
- Do not at this point jump to any conclusions as to what obedience faith is, but allow the rest of the letter define it -- we can assure you that it will, and that it is a very satisfying definition.
- We recognize that the ordering of words in Greek is not the same as in English, and that the term could be called faith obedience rather than obedience faith. This gives us no problem at all, for when you think about it; (a) faith-obedience is obedience that comes from the type of faith Paul will define in the letter, while (b) obedience-faith is identically the same thing but instead it is defining the quality of the faith by the word obedience. The ordering of the words is thus not relevant.
7 To all that are in Rome, beloved of God, called (to be) saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
8 First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you all, that your faith is proclaimed throughout the whole world.
9 For God is my witness, whom I serve in my spirit in the gospel of his Son, how unceasingly I make mention of you, always in my prayers
10 making request, if by any means now at length I may be prospered by the will of God to come unto you.
[Paul's prayer for them started out with a thanksgiving to God for the faith of the Roman Christians -- a faith that had to have been demonstrated by their obedience and works in promoting the gospel (James 2:18). So already we are getting a glimpse into what obedience faith is. The prayer goes on to make the request that Paul could come to them for the reasons that will become obvious in the next couple of verses. But we must not neglect the essence of verse 9. Why would Paul call God for his witness to attest that he was making prayers to come to them. In other places where such strong language is used (e.g., Philippians 1:8), it is clear that there were opponents of Paul (and the gospel) who were questioning his integrity and apostleship. Paul started off in verse 1 asserting his being an apostle, not in the general sense of the word (messenger), but in the official sense of the "twelve." We will see that this is in fact the case in Rome and that his appeal to God is warranted. He also asserts that what they could easily observe from his obvious obedience to Christ was not a surface things, but is was a service "in my spirit" or from the heart of the inner man. And, in fact, the very prayers under discussion would be evidence of such that could only be truly known by Paul and God.]
11 For I long to see you, that I may impart unto you some spiritual gift, to the end ye may be established;
12 that is, that I with you may be comforted in you, each of us by the other's faith, both yours and mine.
[The term "spiritual gift" appears in the singular only in this verse; the plural form appears only three times in First Corinthians (12:1; 14:1 and 14:12), where it is clear that Paul is talking about predominantly miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit that enabled the early Christians to know the doctrines of Christ prior to their being written down in the Bible. Paul, being an apostle had the ability to impart spiritual gifts by the laying on of his hands (see Acts 8:18 and 19:6). So, there is no doubt that this well could have been what he was talking about. However, to infer from this that the Christians at Rome had not already received such gifts is a completely different subject. There were converts made from Rome as indicated in Acts 2:10, and for them to return to Rome without having the miraculous guidance of the Holy Spirit would seem unthinkable. Further, there are indications within the current letter that they had spiritual gifts, such as Romans 12:6: "And having gifts differing according to the grace that was given to us, whether prophecy, (let us prophesy) according to the proportion of our faith..." That the further establishing them by imparting to them some spiritual gift (whether miraculous or not) is not dependent on their current possession of miraculous gifts, as we see in 1 Corinthians 12, 13 and 14.]
[In this address Paul shows his love for them, although he had never been to Rome and only knew of a few there directly. Nevertheless, he had heard of their faith (apparently from many quarters) and commended them for it. He expressed his desire to come to them that he might be of assistance in comforting them, looking forward to being comforted himself.]
13 And I would not have you ignorant, brethren, that oftentimes I purposed to come unto you (and was hindered hitherto), that I might have some fruit in you also, even as in the rest of the Gentiles.
[Paul's desire was made known to many, as we see in Acts 19:21, and he was later given assurance by Jesus that this desire would be accomplished (Acts 23:11). "As in the rest of the Gentiles" indicates that the Christians at Rome were predominantly Gentile. It might be asked then: why does Paul spend so much time discussing that they were no longer subject to the Law of Moses? The answer has at least three possibilities: (1) to address the concerns of the Jewish Christians there direction; (2) to address issues that the Gentiles might have who were being influenced by these perhaps more mature Jews; and (3) to state a principle regarding law-keeping in general that could best be illustrated by the counter-example of the Jewish tendency to go back under the Old Testament law.]
14 I am debtor both to Greeks and to Barbarians, both to the wise and to the foolish.
15 So, as much as in me is, I am ready to preach the gospel to you also that are in Rome.
[The word Barbarian has come to infer some a lack of civilization; this was not the case with its usage here; nor is it to be inferred that it correlates with the "wise and the foolish" appearing in the next part of the verse. The use of the Greek word (barbarois) in the first century merely meant someone who did not speak Greek, and hence its usage here was to include all persons, as would the phrase Jews and Gentiles. Similarly wise and foolish has the same connotation of being inclusive, as would rich and poor.]
15 So, as much as in me is, I am ready to preach the gospel to you also that are in Rome.
[This verse carries with it the necessary inference that the "gospel" is not just to be preached to those who are not converted, but since the book is addressed to Christians, if Paul were to preach the gospel to them, it would be equally applicable to Christians. This is further evidence against those who would define the gospel to be limited to a certain set of first principles, as some misuse 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 to teach it the gospel is limited to only the doctrines stated there. Paul was writing a part of the gospel to them in this letter. But he also wanted to preach the gospel, not only to those who had not heard it, but also to lead those who had obeyed it to further maturity. Such preaching and study is required by everyone no matter what our spiritual state might be.]
16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believes; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
[This and verse 17 are critical to our understanding of the entire letter. "Power" is from dudamis -- the word from which we get our word dynamite (we state this only to emphasize the degree and intensity of the use of this word). "Powers" is used in the New Testament to refer to miracles (among other words -- e.g., wonders, signs). However, there is nothing inherently miraculous (supernatural) about the gospel other than its original revelation and confirmation. Since it is now both revealed and confirmed, it can be conveyed from one person to another by natural means, either orally or in writing. But this gives it no less power -- regardless of how it is conveyed, it is still the power of God unto salvation if we will but let it be. To restrict the gospel to be any subset of the New Testament is to state that the rest of the New Testament is not part of the power of God unto salvation -- and this is clearly an attempt to minimize the necessity for obedience to all that God has given us, and to deny our need for obedience faith (see Matthew 4:4; Revelation 22:19).]
[We cannot have the living faith described in James 2:14-26 without availing ourselves of the full power of God unto salvation. This is the Bible definition of the words faith or belief. Belief/faith is not a passive mental process. Understanding this Bible definition of faith is essential to our having the right understanding of the meaning of these faith/belief as they appear throughout the New Testament. Without this understanding much of the New Testament becomes worthless to us, since these words are used intensively throughout the New Testament, and if we neglect their full impact, we cannot hope to understand the New Testament.]
[There can be no doubt that Verse 16 is teaching belief as a condition of salvation. While it is not the ONLY condition of salvation, it certainly is essential to salvation. To all men that believe -- this was an important concept to a people who might think of themselves as being superior to others. The Romans, for example, because they were the rulers of the world. Probably more applicable, many Jews continued to feel that they were still God's chosen people, and many who are not Jews still attribute this to them. Others of particular races feel that their race is chosen by God today. The New Testament dispels this fallacy in many places, to the point that to hold such a prideful belief is sinful. Faith is the great equalizer: not to everyone, but "to everyone that believes." So this verse is also proclaiming the universal applicability of the gospel -- to all people everywhere.]
17 For therein is revealed righteousness of God from faith unto faith: as it is written, But the righteous shall live by faith.
[This is a complex and potentially confusing statement, and the tendency of many translators and commentators is to reason that Paul was just throwing words around in a feel-good type of way, and we are OK as long as we get the general idea. Such a frivolous approach to Biblical interpretation is totally without merit. Difficult passages are given to us to force us to grapple with complex thoughts, to meditate deeply upon them, and ultimately to enable us to arrive at more accurate perceptions of God's truth. The Holy Spirit gave Paul these words (1 Cor. 2), and thus, they are to be understood. Let us subdivide this sentence in an attempt to capture its true essence.
- The gospel reveals "righteousness of God." Translators are divided as to whether the articles should be "a" (inferring that there are others), or "the" (inferring just one). But since no article at all is in the Greek, why even think there is a need for one? Our understanding can work well without either of them.
- Righteousness of God can have two distinctly different meanings, either: (1) the normative meaning, that God is righteous and the gospel reveals it, or (2) the plan of God by which men are accounted to be righteous despite their sins is what the gospel reveals. Most seem to opt for the first alternative; and to those we pose these questions: (1 ) How is it that the gospel establishes or reveals God's righteousness? (2) Is such a defense of God's righteousness even necessary? (3) Do we (or did they) have any doubts about God's righteousness that we need some new revelation to reveal it? (4) Is it not true that God Himself defines what is righteous? and if so, then why would His righteousness need to be revealed further?
- The second alternative is that "righteousness of God" in this context is God's plan for making man "righteous." We are using the word "righteous" accommodatively to mean "forgiven of past sins and thus fit to come into God's presence as a saved person. The state of a human being "righteous" in this sense is not saying that the obedient child of God will never sin, but it is proclaiming that the blood of Christ not only enables forgiven persons to be in the body of Christ but also enables them to seek and obtain forgiveness should they stumble once they are in Christ (1 John 1). This is how our use of the word "righteous" should be understood in this commentary, since it is the meaning of the word throughout the book of Romans. This word, "righteous" appears a total of six times in the book of Romans, starting with its usage in this very verse. The word "righteousness" appears 35 times. In all cases when we see these words we will be referring back to the basic definitions that are being clarified here to validate the intent of the Holy Spirit in choosing to use these words.
- The transition of thought to this meaning might be difficult, so let us discuss a bit further what "righteousness of God" means in this context. It is the way that God makes sinful men acceptable to Him (righteous) without the necessity for them to be perfectly sinless (which is an impossibility except for infants and those recently baptized). It is contrasted with another method of men, "the law," as we shall see in future chapters. Generally in Romans, "the law" refers to the Old Testament laws, which did require perfection -- a perfection that was never attained by anyone except Jesus Christ. So think of the "righteousness" in the phrase "righteousness of God" to be the righteousness attained by the child of God who has obeyed the gospel (which has revealed this "righteousness of God"). This is not some creation of man, nor is it (as the old law) attained by perfect sinlessness. No, it is not of man at all, but it is "of God," a righteousness imparted to "just men made perfect" (Heb. 12:23) that is of the creation of God, and thus to whom all of the glory must be given for it. This might be articulated by saying that the "righteousness of God" is our system of faith; it is the structure by which we understand the New Testament, and it is revealed in the gospel, which is the New Testament (see comments on Verse 16).
- As a final test of this definition of "righteousness of God," try it out by substituting the word "gospel" for it in the other contexts in which it appears in this same letter. It can be found in Romans 3:5; 3:21-22, and 10:3. This is also called "His {God's} righteousness in 3:25-26; and the "righteousness of faith" in 4:11 and 13, 9:30; and 10:6." Why not just say gospel? Why not just say church for body of Christ, family of God, kingdom, brotherhood, etc., etc. There is something that the Holy Spirit wants us to GET by calling it by this different descriptor. Are you beginning to get it?
- From faith unto faith. This is another term for which there has been considerable controversy. It has been translated in all of the following ways: (1) from faith to (or unto) faith, which preserves the literal Greek wording - ASV, NASB, NASU, NKJV and KJV; (2) faith from first to last - NIV; (3) through faith for faith - RSV, NRSV; (4) from start to finish by faith - NLT; and (5) through faith from beginning to end - TEV. {We notice here that none of these translations support another commonly held belief that it means from the Old Testament faith to the New Testament faith, an interpretation that can be discounted for the following reasons: (1) it adds a thought that is contrary to entire context; (2) it is an addition to the scriptures and thus a failure to respect their silence; (3) if this was Paul's intent he most surely would have just come out and said it; and (4) those words have little meaning and are themselves subject to a broad range of interpretations.} We urge readers: "do not to allow translators to do your thinking for you." It is far better to just have a literal word for word translation that we know is of the Spirit than to be given something that is plausible but wrong. None of the alternatives (2)-(5) are correct. In fact, we easily recognize that some of these translations are intended to bias the reader toward faith only. However, we can see that just the opposite of faith-only is being taught when we allow the commentary within the verse itself to help us understand this meaning, since Paul clearly qualifies "from faith unto faith" by "as it is written ..."
- The righteous shall live by faith. This is from Habakkuk 2:4, and it was written at a time when the Jews were consumed by pride, trusting in their own righteousness, and the result was they were not living as they should. Habakkuk was attempting to tell the Jews of his day that if they were to be considered by God to be just and righteous, they could not continue in their sins. The state of righteousness and the state of sinfulness are totally incompatible. Note how this relates to the word righteousness used in the earlier part of the verse. Those who are in Christ are born again (Romans 6) to a new life of righteousness; thus despite their unwilling failings, they can be considered "righteous" in the sense of being acceptable to God. But it is essential that these saved individuals live by faith -- that faith become so much a part of their consciousness that it dominates every aspect of their behavior (Galatians 2:20). The interpretation of this part of the verse is without controversy, so let us use it to revisit the previous phrase to obtain the understanding that we feel the author intended ...
- From faith unto faith (revisited). That the new system of faith called the "righteousness of God" is based upon the faith of those saved and not their law-keeping will be made exceedingly clear in the remainder of the book of Romans. Many falsely interpret this as a relaxation of God's moral laws; but in reality this results in a far higher standard of righteousness. For when the just are motivated by their faith in Jesus Christ the resultant lives are far more disciplined and attuned to God's will than when they are just being compliant to a list of laws. Faith involves the heart of man, and as such results in a complete transformation.
- Also, note the parallel between: (1) "the power of God unto salvation" and (2) "righteousness of God from faith unto faith." The gospel is the power of God that leads unto salvation. The righteousness of God is a body of information (God's word) that leads to faith (Rom 10:17). This new system of man's becoming acceptable to God (righteous) emanates from the system of faith that has been delivered by and through Jesus Christ. The reception and acceptance of this body of knowledge (called faith) results in the faith of the individual. These are two different things that the word faith is used to indicate. Romans 10:17 can help us here: "So faith comes of hearing, and hearing by the word of Christ." The word of Christ is "the faith" (of Jude 3 and Romans 1:5), and it is that which produces faith both in the new convert and the growth of faith in the more mature Christian. In turn this system of faith leads to salvation. Clearly and perhaps intentionally ambiguous, it can mean from the faith (the gospel) to belief in the gospel; or it could mean from an initial belief in the gospel to a much greater saving faith. We prefer to think that both of these thoughts are being communicated.
The "righteousness of God" in these contexts is synonymous with the content of the gospel itself, since it is by faith in Jesus that his blood cleanses our sin, and thus we become righteous by the righteousness of God (obeying the gospel). This is the contrast that is going to be made throughout most of the letter, so it is good that we understand it now. When we see "righteousness of God" we should think "gospel," which we know is the power OF GOD (not man) unto salvation. It is a system of faith, but what does it produce? Is faith an end in itself? NO -- it is the spiritual ingesting of the gospel that leads us to the faith required by God (faithfulness), i.e., the righteous do not just HAVE faith, they LIVE by faith.]
18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hinder the truth in unrighteousness;
[This initiates a very much different train of thought; but it is connected as the antithesis of the righteousness of God. It essentially the reason that a "righteousness of God" is necessary. Thus, "righteousness of God" can be contrasted with "unrighteousness of Satan" or in this context unqualified unrighteousness in general.]
19 because that which is known of God is manifest in them; for God manifested it unto them.
20 For the invisible things of him since the creation of the world are clearly seen, being perceived through the things that are made, (even) his everlasting power and divinity; that they may be without excuse:
21 because that, knowing God, they glorified him not as God, neither gave thanks; but became vain in their reasoning, and their senseless heart was darkened.
[The bible never attempts to prove the existence of God; and there is no reason that we should think that we have to. Men are mistaken to believe that proving the existence of God is a requirement of Christians (or any faith system). The existence of a superior power and the knowledge of this existence is assumed by biblical writers to be known to all men; and it is known to all men. The fact that they deny it makes this no less a reality. The heavens declare the glory of God as do countless other things that we know that we cannot fathom. For example we can say the word "infinity," but we cannot fathom it. We cannot fathom that there is no end to the heavens -- they go on forever. But in our humanistic way, with all of our necessities provided to us, we have grown beyond the need to humble ourselves. Humanism teaches that it is up to us and humanity alone to solve all of our problems. And for shame if we expose your weaknesses in having faith in God. See that now is not the first time that this has happened, and Paul reviews the process well. Generally, instead of humbling ourselves, we declare that we ARE god; we must be because there is nothing greater than us. We fail to see the need for a creator or a sustainer of the universe. The thought is that it all just happened by chance, and it is expect to always be as it currently is. Clearly Paul is talking about the Gentiles of his time here who made their own gods as we see reading on.]
22 Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,
23 and changed the glory of the incorruptible God for the likeness of an image of corruptible man, and of birds, and four-footed beasts, and creeping things.
[And yet, they did not have a clue as to how utterly stupid -- totally devoid of any logic or reasonableness -- these actions were. We will see why as we continue Chapter 1.]
24 Wherefore God gave them up in the lusts of their hearts unto uncleanness, that their bodies should be dishonored among themselves:
25 for that they exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.
[Idols of gold, silver and wood back then, humankind now. The creature served and worshiped is at least alive, but there is still no excuse. "Wherefore God gave them up." Lets survey the process. God gave them ample evidence of his power and divinity. They were determined to ignore that. So what did they do? Needing something to worship, they created their idols. Today the creation is humanism and evolution -- ways to rationalize away the existence of God altogether. When these things are ingrained into the children over several generations, it goes to seed and they accept these things as being fact and persecute those who would consider the evidence differently. Upon being so foolish, proud and self-serving, God gave them up. When we see people living in such a self-destructive and unreasonable ways, we cannot figure it out on a purely rational basis. But the answer it that when they became hopeless, God gave them up. If there is no God then why can't everyone do whatever pleases them, and these things do not stop with the normal sense of what was at one time frowned on and considered immoral. No, now they let their imaginations run wild to the point of abusing their own bodies in a large variety of ways to say nothing of what they do to children and others who are helpless before them. These verses teach that God will make them to be of such a deplorable nature that their sin should be obvious to all. The problem is, so many of these sins are now considered by our society to be virtues. If we cannot see the frustration of God in this and wonder just how long He will allow it to continue it can only be because we are part of the problem.]
26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile passions: for their women changed the natural use into that which is against nature:
27 and likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another, men with men working unseemliness, and receiving in themselves that recompense of their error which was due.
[A second level of being given up by God leads to all types of sexual immorality. This is often defended by those who claim that certain people who were born into the wrong bodies cannot help it. But if you read closely you will see that this is not what is being talked about. See the words, "changed" and "leaving the natural use." This is talking of those who willfully changed from that which is natural and commanded to that which is not. We are in great sympathy for those who are born with genetic issues, but we would advise them through prayer to ask God for spiritual help in coping with these issues.]
28 And even as they refused to have God in (their) knowledge, God gave them up unto a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not fitting;
29 being filled with all unrighteousness, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness; full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, malignity; whisperers,
30 backbiters, hateful to God, insolent, haughty, boastful, inventors of evil things, disobedient to parents,
31 without understanding, covenant-breakers, without natural affection, unmerciful:
[This list is not complete but gives a good idea of the level of sin to which those who give up God will eventually decline. This can be viewed as a third level of being given up by God, and it shows the depths of degradation that people will be allowed to descend. Or perhaps, worse than that, at some point there will be no turning back because they have been given up by God. The lesson here is simple: if you can repent at this point, by all means do it. Do not continue in your sin, and especially be looking for worse ways that you can violate God's laws. While you seek pleasure, know for a fact that the short term pleasure you might receive will not be worth the long term consequences both in this life, but especially in the life to come.]
32 who, knowing the ordinance of God, that they that practice such things are worthy of death, not only do the same, but also consent with them that practice them.
[Perhaps not a necessary implication, but an implication of this sentence nonetheless is the fact that those who stand on the sidelines and cheer on those in gross degradation are worse than those who actually practice them. How can this be? For one thing those who do not practice them may well be guilty of hypocrisy. Perhaps they are pretending that they do not practice these things but in reality they approve of them. There is a sense that they could be more guilty (if such is even possible) because without the consent of this elite society itself might be able to discipline the gross offenders much more effectively,]
[Summary of Chapter one. Keep in that mind Paul's goal here is to get everyone to realize how much our own righteousness is lacking, and thus how much we need to depend on the "righteousness of God" for our salvation. This system of faith is described for us in the gospel (1:16-17). Going forward, the "righteousness of God" will also be referenced by the one word: "faith" or "the faith." This is in opposition to our attempt to save ourselves, which will be encapsulated in the word "works." But we are getting ahead of ourselves. Paul condemned the Gentiles in this chapter, and all of the Jews were probably quite pleased with this and nodding their heads in agreement. He has them just where he wants them as he is about to spring his trap on them.]
Romans 2
2:1 Wherefore thou art without excuse, O man, whosoever you are that judge: for wherein thou judges another, you condemn yourself; for you that judge practice the same things.
2 And we know that the judgment of God is according to truth against them that practice such things.
3 And reckon you this, O man, who judges them that practice such things, and do the same, that you shalt escape the judgment of God?
[Paul uses a lot of rhetorical questions to make the points. Surely the Jews were looking down on the terrible Gentile practices listed at the end of Chapter 1 ... but did they have a right to do this? Or, for that matter, do we? For, I am sure that we were right there with the Jews while reading the first chapter and perhaps like the Pharisee of Luke 18:10-11 saying: "I thank thee, that I am not as the rest of men, extortioners, unjust, adulterers,..." Well, I am like them and so are you. Our sins might not be the same, but sin is sin. So the words of these verses are talking to every one of us, but they seem calculated by Paul to spring a trap on the Jews in Rome who may have felt immune to sin.]
4 Or do you despise the riches of his goodness and forbearance and longsuffering, not knowing that the goodness of God leads you to repentance?
[Goodness of God ... is this not the same as the Righteousness of God (see 1:17)? There it say that this righteousness of God is described in the gospel? And indeed, it is the gospel that leads us to repentance, in response to the rhetorical question. Of course, hearing the gospel should lead us to repent of our sins and turn to God's ways. Remember Paul is speaking to believers here ... those who were separated from the world unto Christ. So as righteous as they (and we) might be, we still fall far short of the standard that is Christ. This is what Paul is trying to get them to see, since the Jews in particular seemed to be wanting to go back and be justified by the works of the Old Testament law.]
5 but after thy hardness and impenitent heart treasurest up for thyself wrath in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God;
6 who will render to every man according to his works:
7 to them that by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and incorruption, eternal life:
8 but unto them that are factious, and obey not the truth, but obey unrighteousness, (shall be) wrath and indignation,
9 tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that works evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Greek;
10 but glory and honor and peace to every man that works good, to the Jew first, and also to the Greek:
11 for there is no respect of persons with God.
[You are not going to be saved just because you are a Jew. Or because you joined the "right" religious organization (which is far more applicable in our cases since many are taught that salvation is attained by being part of some organization). What is the condition here? Having "...patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and incorruption... to every man that works good, ..." Is that work? Surely it is not faith only (if there could be such a thing). It is active dedication -- no real difference from any other statement of the conditions of salvation. We will see them expressed in many ways throughout the book of Romans.]
[Is Paul so quickly contradicting himself? Did he not teach in the first chapter that salvation was of faith and not of works? The answer is a resounding NO when the "righteousness of God" by which we are saved is understood in light of Habakkuk 2:4. We will not repeat the arguments of Romans 1:17 above. But we will add that which is summarized so well in James 2:14-26: there is no inconsistency between true living faith and the inevitable works that HAVE TO result from it. They result not because they are systematically commanded, but because they are a normal product of of the behavior of those who have given themselves to Jesus Christ (Galatians 2:20; Philippians 1:21).]
[Conider verse 11 ... do we believe this? What would this world be like if everyone believed it? Recall from Acts ... Acts 10:34-35 ...
34 And Peter opened his mouth and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons:
35 but in every nation he that fears him, and works righteousness, is acceptable to him.
Is Peter's condition here any different from that given by Paul? Not at all -- just different ways of saying the same thing. All mankind -- to the Jew first, but also to the Greek. Paul here is fighting prejudice -- the tendency to think "we are better" because of our heritage, race, nationality, economic standing whatever ... We should be able to see, if not in ourselves then in those around us, this tendency to be defensive when it comes to any insult to whatever group that we might consider ourselves to be part of. This is used by money/power hungry leaders to control people quite effectively. We would all do well if we were to consider ourselves as God does -- just as human beings and not of any sub-classification. This is what Paul is saying when he says "there is no respect of persons with God." This was a lesson that the Jews needed, but one that would be of use to the Gentiles as well. A failure to recognize it is a problem regardless. And to think it is any less a problem today is the epitome of naivety.]
[Consider verses 12-16 collectively first:]
Romans 2:12-16
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without the law: and as many as have sinned under the law shall be judged by the law;
13 for not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified:
14 (for when Gentiles that have not the law do by nature the things of the law, these, not having the law, are the law unto themselves;
15 in that they show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness therewith, and their thoughts one with another accusing or else excusing them)
16 in the day when God shall judge the secrets of men, according to my gospel, by Jesus Christ.
[Now we will remove the parenthetical to analyze the meaning.]
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without the law: and as many as have sinned under the law shall be judged by the law;
13 for not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified:
["Doers" -- would not these be workers? In one sense, yes; in another sense, no. They are doers of what God wants them to do, not of their own desires. They are doers out of faith in God, and not trusting in their own righteousness nor thinking that they can in any way merit their salvation. But it is clear here that Paul is referring to the Old Testament law, in this case the law of Moses, since that is what the Jews were under at the time of Christ.]
13 ... but the doers of the law shall be justified: (parenthetical ignored)
16 in the day when God shall judge the secrets of men, according to my gospel, by Jesus Christ.
[The judgment will be carried out by Jesus Christ and it will involve a full disclosure of all of the secrets of men. It is at this time (and in most cases, not before) that they will be shown to be justified by their behavior. Now for the parenthetical ...]
14 (for when Gentiles that have not the law do by nature the things of the law, these, not having the law, are the law unto themselves;
15 in that they show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness therewith, and their thoughts one with another accusing or else excusing them)
[This must have come as a shock to the Jews who figured that they were acceptable to God simply by virtue of their birthright -- children of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. This is again reiterating that we are not judged as a race or a nation (or as it would apply today -- even as a church or other religious organization). We are judged by God as individuals. So, even during the time of the Mosaic law, there were some Gentiles who were doing their best to keep God's law as well as they knew it, and they were approved of God. But this is still being directed toward the Jews at Rome, as we can see from the next verse ...]
17 But if thou bearest the name of a Jew, and restest upon the law, and gloriest in God,
18 and knowest his will, and approvest the things that are excellent, being instructed out of the law,
19 and art confident that thou thyself art a guide of the blind, a light of them that are in darkness,
20 a corrector of the foolish, a teacher of babes, having in the law the form of knowledge and of the truth;
21 thou therefore that teachest another, teachest thou not thyself? thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal?
22 thou that sayest a man should not commit adultery, dost thou commit adultery? thou that abhorrest idols, dost thou rob temples?
23 thou who gloriest in the law, through thy transgression of the law dishonorest thou God?
24 For the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles because of you, even as it is written.
[Perhaps referring to Isa 52:5 or Ezek 36:22-23. They knew. He did not need to quote it. And we all know similarly that we have not come up to the standard of Jesus Christ. We teach the truth and try to promote it to the best of our abilities. But if we succeed, it is because of the power of the truth that we teach, not because of the goodness of the messengers. We all sin everyday. If they were honest with themselves, they would see this. Paul is just turning the light onto it.]
[This last thought was that God was being blasphemed among the Gentiles because of the sins of the Jews. Basically, after the greeting, Paul has been trying to convince both the Gentiles and the Jews that individually they were guilty of sin and thus, worthy of death and eternal separation from God. Further trying to be justified by "man's righteousness" was and is hopeless. Thus, we need God's righteous (or "the righteousness of God") if we are going to be saved. That righteousness is revealed in the gospel (Rom. 1:16). So then, what good is it being a Jew? What good is circumcision?]
25 For circumcision indeed profiteth, if thou be a doer of the law: but if thou be a transgressor of the law, thy circumcision is become uncircumcision.
[Meeting one technicality of the law does not make you immune to the rest of it. The converse is not true however. One sin and the law is of no effect as far as its role in salvation (assuming that was ever intended).]
26 If therefore the uncircumcision keep the ordinances of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be reckoned for circumcision?
[Speaking of course in a relative sense. Wouldn't the Gentile have as much claim to salvation as the Jew if, in fact, salvation was through law keeping.]
27 and shall not the uncircumcision which is by nature, if it fulfil the law, judge thee, who with the letter and circumcision art a transgressor of the law?
[Paul has them leaning against the Gentiles in Chapter 1, and now he is springing the trap showing them that the finger they were pointing at the Gentiles applies equally well to themselves (and by obvious extension, to all of us).]
28 For he is not a Jew who is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision which is outward in the flesh:
29 but he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
[This also will be a recurring theme. Later on he will say: "They are not all Israel who are of Israel..." using the word Israel first in the spiritual sense and then in the physical sense. God's chosen people are no longer the Jews, or any nation for that matter. God's chosen are those who have listened to and responded to God call to enter into the Kingdom of heaven. This is made quite clear in Galatians 3:29: "And if ye are Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, heirs according to promise." The motivation of those who are Christ's is not just in letter-keeping, checking the boxes, doing what they have to do. Their motivation is much higher than that, and it leads to a much higher level of obedience. Contrast the love of a woman who loves and chooses the man whom she will marry as opposed to the arranged marriage to a stranger. Or perhaps a better example is the worker who does the bare minimum so he will not get fired as opposed to the worker that does everything that he can to see that the company succeeds. The second is not acceptable because he has disregarded the law of the boss; he is given a promotion because the boss does not have to spend all of his time watching him. It is in the spirit, not in the letter. This is not license to disregard the laws of God; it is the motivation to keep them, but well beyond the mere letter.]
[In chapter 1 Paul showed how evil the vast majority of the Gentiles had gotten, and in Chapter 2 he shows that the Jews are essentially in the same boat. No one could honestly argue with him, although we know that there were some who were relatively righteous and acceptable to God during this time. The major point will be that this "relative righteousness" is not sufficient. God has providing something else -- he will get to that at the end of Chapter 3, but he is committed first to drive home the point that they cannot be saved by their own righteousness.]
Romans 3
3:1 What advantage then hath the Jew? or what is the profit of circumcision?
[Having sprung the trap on the Jews and potentially convincing them that they are not superior in their efforts to save themselves than the Gentiles, Paul anticipates this questions, which he will answer in this chapter. Restated, the question is: If the Jews are in the same boat as the Gentiles, then what advantages did the Jews have as being "God's chosen people?"]
2 Much every way: first of all, that they were entrusted with the oracles of God.
[Should they not consider this a great privilege? Should not we? But perhaps they considered it a great burden and lust after the Gentiles for not being so constrained. This is the typical thinking of the worldly mind, the mindset of those "without faith" -- to use the term that Paul uses in the next verse.]
3 For what if some were without faith? shall their want of faith make of none effect the faithfulness of God?
[God's laws are only effectual in bringing happiness to mankind if they are obeyed; in other words if they are met with faith in those to whom they are given. God is totally faithful and cannot lie. He is faithful and will keep all of His promises. The fact that most all of these promises were conditional, and the Jews did not keep their part of the conditions, meant that often they did not receive what was promised. Neither did they receive the immediate benefits that obedience would bring. They were unfaithful, but that was not God's fault.]
4 May it never be: yea, let God be found true, but every man a liar; as it is written, That thou might be justified in thy words, And might prevail when thou comest into judgment.
[Many versions have the term "God forbid" in the most absolute negative responses to Paul's rhetorical questions (e.g., 3:4; 3:6; 3:31; 6:2; 6:15; 7:7; 7:13; 9:14; 11:1, 11;11 and also Lk. 20:16; 1 Cor 6:15; Gal 2:17 and Gal 3:21). This must have been the most negative expression that the translators could think of. The actual Greek words (Strong's numbers) are mee (3361) and genoito (1096). Neither of these words is ever translated either "God" of "forbid." We commend those versions that recognized this and translated this term according the the following: (1) Certainly not - NKJV and TEV; (2) not at all - NIV; (3) by no means - RSV and NRSV; and (4) may it never be - NASB and NASU. We have adopted this last one in consistency with the American Standard tradition, since most of our scripture references are ASV. To use a term that unnecessarily calls upon the name of God seems to us to be way outside of the latitude that translators should be given. This comment will not be repeated when this term is encountered in other passages within the book of Romans.]
[Of course, Paul's question was a rhetorical one that would not be in dispute with either Jew or Gentile believer, and recall that Paul is writing to believers. At that point it will be obvious what the truth is, and apparently that is important to God -- that those beings He has created with free will (after His image) should know the truth and that He always speaks the truth. "Let God be find true, but every man a liar" are Paul's words (given by the Holy Spirit, of course), and they effectively state in a comparison between God and man, we should always trust in God. This is not a relative thing -- God is always truthful. The degree to which men are liars, of course, is relative; however, since we are all guilty of deception at times, it is not hyperbole to say that all men are liars. The words written are from Psalms 54:4, where David was in agony bemoaning his sin with Bathsheba and against Uriah and the entire nation of Israel. David essentially was whole-heartedly accepting the punishments that God was meting out to him and, in essence, praising God despite his sinful condition, which could only be remedied by God's forgiveness, and ultimately the blood of Christ.]
5 But if our unrighteousness commendeth the righteousness of God, what shall we say? Is God unrighteous who visiteth with wrath? (I speak after the manner of men.)
[Is this the way God wants to be magnified? ... in contrast to us? He will be thus glorified if we do not submit to Him. But He would much rather be glorified by our obedience, as He was by Christ's. It appears that there were those who were trying to abuse the grace of God and the faith by teaching that God is glorified in our sin, so there is no problem with our continuing in it. This is much like the practical consequences of the "faith-only" movement today since it seems to place a stigma in our doing anything to obey God's commands. They say if we are obedient to God's plan of salvation we do that we are not trusting in God to save us by faith-only. Of course, the bible nowhere teaches faith-only, and in fact is totally contrary to the truth taught in James 2:14-26. While such a teaching appears to be absurd to those who believe all of the gospel, we should recognize that it is not a recent invention, and by the teachings of this chapter and also Romans 6, seemed to be a rather prevalent misconception in the first century. The final rhetorical question posed makes it clear that such a teaching would put a premium on sin, and thus make God unrighteous. It would, in fact, encourage the worst types of sin -- those discussed in the second half of Chapter 1. No doubt faith-only must take a large part of the credit for the degradation that seems to be getting worse in our society today.]
6 Absolutely not: for then how shall God judge the world?
[If sin is good because it glorifies God, then how could he judge the sinner?]
7 But if the truth of God through my lie abounded unto his glory, why am I also still judged as a sinner?
8 and why not (as we are slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say), Let us do evil, that good may come? whose condemnation is just.
[Work backward -- the "condemnation is just" to those who make these false accusations against Paul. They were slanderously saying that he taught that God's grace would cover all sin, so he was teaching that we can do evil that good may come. This was really a clever half (or maybe 0.00001%) truth that was being exploited by the enemies of Paul and the gospel. God's grace and his willingness to forgive out sins are realities. But to take these true spiritual realities and state that they encourage sin is a travesty of the truth. If done in sincerity it would show a total misunderstanding of the gospel, for its intent is to make men far more virtuous than the Old Testament laws ever could. Indeed, those promoting such a ploy will be condemned for it, and their condemnation is just. They could be teaching is for two reasons: (1) they did not want to abide by God's will, and thus asserted that Paul was teaching what they were practicing; or (2) as a criticism of Paul especially by the Judaizers, who generally tried to portray Paul as being lawless (which we know is far from the truth). It seems the latter is more probable since they were slandering Paul, thus recognizing what they were saying was not true. Their motivations are the same as the motivations of those who crucified Jesus.]
9 What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we before laid to the charge both of Jews and Greeks, that they are all under sin;
[Paul takes his place with the Jews. Thus, we = Jews; and they = Gentiles. The Jews had the oracles of God; but did that make them better? He answers this question next.]
10 as it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one;
11 There is none that understandeth, There is none that seeketh after God;
12 They have all turned aside, they are together become unprofitable; There is none that doeth good, no, not, so much as one:
13 Their throat is an open sepulchre; With their tongues they have used deceit: The poison of asps is under their lips:
14 Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness:
15 Their feet are swift to shed blood;
16 Destruction and misery are in their ways;
17 And the way of peace have they not known:
18 There is no fear of God before their eyes.
[We feel what Paul was trying to convey here is a simple truth. He reiterates it in various ways for emphasis, including the quotations from Old Testament scriptures (Psalms 14:1-3 and 53:1-3). These Psalms were written for the Jews, but the original passages do not seem to be limited to them. At the time of their writing there were "none righteous" of any nationality. Paul is saying something that we too can say today -- things have not changed at all. What the prophets wrote back then is still very much true of mankind today. So, is there no hope? None if we trust in our own righteousness (humanism). But the question will be answered in the remainder of this chapter; i.e., those who are "righteous" are only so because of their subjection to the "righteousness of God" (Rom 1:16-17;10:3).]
[Paul has now presented the problem in fine detail -- all men are sinners and they cannot save themselves. No matter what they contrive, and no matter how righteous it might seem to them, it is pathetically lacking. Now he turns to providing a solution to this problem, which will be the basis for the rest of the letter.]
19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it speaks to them that are under the law; that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may be brought under the judgment of God:
20 because by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified in his sight; for through the law (come) the knowledge of sin.
[This is a reiteration of the purpose of the law. The law was perfect in this regard. It was created by God. It did not have any flaws. But our KNOWING what is sin is not enough. The problem is in mankind's determination to disregard God's sense of righteousness. A law was needed to show that no flesh could be justified by perfect law keeping; i.e., to bring about a better knowledge of what is right and what is wrong.]
21 But now apart from law righteousness of God hath been manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
22 even righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ unto all them that believe; for there is no distinction;
23 for all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God;
[So, since we are all in the same boat, we all need the same salvation. Note the term "righteousness of God" -- recall what that is: Rom 1:16-17 "For I am not ashamed of the gospel: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek. For therein is revealed righteousness of God from faith unto faith: as it is written, But the righteous shall live by faith." (See the detailed explanation in 1:16-17.) The righteousness of God is that which is revealed in the gospel of Jesus Christ; it is not the fact that God is righteous. Instead it is that system of faith (the gospel) that brings about virtual righteousness to those who will live by it. It is not the fact that "God is righteous" although for sure that has to be part of it. But what he is contrasting the "righteousness of God" with here is the "righteousness of man." Clearly we cannot be saved by any system of righteousness devised by men. And, since the law was nailed to the cross with Christ (Colossians 2:14), any attempt to go back and obtain righteousness by it would be rebellion against Christ. In this case it was probably being promoted by the Judiazers at Rome in an attempt to maintain the power of the Jewish religious establishment, making their sin of usurping God's authority even worse.]
[Note that we have deleted the articles "a" and "the" from verses 21 and 22 where they do not appear in the Greek interlinears -- please check that out if you have one. The article "a" would imply that there are others, while the article "the" would imply that there is only one. Both modify the meaning of the term and are best omitted so what we can interpret these terms for ourselves.]
24 being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
25 whom God set forth (to be) a propitiation, through faith, in his blood, to show his righteousness because of the passing over of the sins done aforetime, in the forbearance of God;
[Our sins must be forgiven and the gospel tells us how that is accomplished. When we yield ourselves to it (i.e., obey it -- see 2 Thes. 1:8 and 1 Pet. 4:17), we are exhibiting faith in righteousness of God and not our own righteousness. Do we deserve to have our sins forgiven? No, this is accomplished by the grace of God through faith. "His righteousness" in this context could have two equally valid meanings, and this well could be a play on words by Paul to use them both simultaneously. It could be talking God's righteousness in contrast with the term God's unrighteousness used in verse 5 of this chapter. Equally, this is talking about the gospel, God's power unto salvation, since it is by this same faith in the blood of Christ that resulted in "the passing over of sins done aforetime" (i.e., before the cross). One of the major subthemes of the book of Hebrews is that this saving power goes in both time directions. If we substitute "the power of the gospel" for "his righteousness" in verse 25 it fits perfectly. We believe that both meanings are being concurrently presented here, and similarly moving forward to the next verse.]
26 for the showing, (I say), of his righteousness at this present season: that he might himself be just, and the justifier of him that hath faith in Jesus.
27 Where then is the glorying? It is excluded. By what manner of law? of works? Nay: but by a law of faith.
[This "law of faith" is what we have referred as a "system of faith," or what Jude calls "the faith" in Jude 3. It can also be seen from the Greek that Paul was talking about "obedience to the faith" in Romans 1:5 as opposed to most translations that render it a nebulous "obedience of faith." We dare not regard the gospel as a replacement for the Old Testament law. We can no more keep the entire "law of faith" perfectly than we can the OT law. In fact, the loftier ideals of the law of faith make it even more difficult (impossible) to completely attain. However, if we give ourselves to it, to what we know we can do, and strive to keep all of it, then we are subjecting ourselves to God's righteousness and not our own; and our sins will be forgiven. This will be taken up in more detail in the second half of Chapter 7.]
28 We reckon therefore that a man is justified by faith apart from the works of the law.
[The word faith here is used to refer to all that has been defined above ... we cannot invent our own definition of it to suit our liking. The best definition of faith is obtained by reading the first three chapters of Romans. Also, Hebrews 11 defines what faith is by giving examples. Here Paul qualifies the word "works" -- not just any works, but the "works of the law" (which is talking about the Law of Moses specifically at this point, since this is what the Judaizers were promoting as an alternative to righteousness of God). But surely we can generalize this to say that if any system of works becomes like the "works of the law," it would equally be disqualified as being able to bring about salvation. Anything that we could imagine that we have accomplished so that we think "God owes us salvation" would be disqualified. Anything for which we are proud would be disqualified, including faith-only (however that is defined). But this does not mean that God does not have a law for us today. Having a law and our being saved by totally keeping that law are two entirely different things. Clearly a law exists for us today; it was called "a law of faith" in the previous verse. Also see 1 Corinthians 9:21, and see "Not Saved by Works."]
29 Or is God (the God) of Jews only? is he not (the God) of Gentiles also? Yea, of Gentiles also:
30 if so be that God is one, and he shall justify the circumcision by faith, and the uncircumcision through {the Greek tees} faith.
[The context indicates that there cannot be a difference between how the Jews and the Gentiles are justified. If they are justified, it will be as individuals and not as groups. Those who are saved are justified by righteousness of God as revealed in the gospel (1:16-17). But Paul might be trying to communicate some subtle difference here by using two different Greek prepositions (by and through), and also by using an article before the second faith occurrence. When we see the words faith used together in a seemingly different sense, we should suspect that perhaps the two different meanings of the word faith, discussed in connection with 1:17 might be in play. In this case the Jews knew the Old Testament and thus should have a working familiarity with the concept of salvation (see 2 Timothy 3:16-17). Thus, they would not need so much to learn it as to accept it and believe it. So their faith in this context might be talking about their putting their faith in the teachings of Jesus Christ, which should be fairly well known to them. So they are justified by such faith. On the other hand, if the Gentiles were ignorant of the details of the gospel, they would need to learn "the faith" in order to be justified. So they would be justified through this faith system, called "the faith" in Jude 3. Our authority for inserting the word "the" before the word "faith" in the second usage are common interlinears that are easily accessible today. Why the translators ignored this subtlety is unknown, except for the fact that they tend to copy off of each other so as not to rock their academic boats. The NIV and NRSV go so far as to say "through that same faith," lest their readers not recognize their hidden agendas. Of course, we know from other passages that the gospel is the same for all; but Paul seems to be at least hinting at the fact that in the application of the gospel there might be a different process for the Gentiles than from the Jews. Our discussion here would be that the difference is merely in the learning process, and once the same gospel is understood by both, they were both subject to it in exactly the same way.]
31 Do we then make the law of none effect through faith? Absolutely not: nay, we establish the law.
[We will see as we go on that Paul is taking obedience to a whole new level in that he is getting to what motivates us to be obedient. It is not just to qualify -- to gain a prize. It is because we trust that the revealed word of God is in our best interests both now and in eternity; and we know He will keep his promises. It is because we come to know that a life in Christ is by far that best possible life that we can live on this earth, and that its rewards are thus both temporal and eternal (see Mark 10:30).]
[Now that Paul has given the remedy -- "righteousness of God" -- he goes on to give additional evidence that salvation is not to be found in the Old Testament law. It is hard to imagine Paul spending so much time on this if this was not a problem at Rome. Either the Jews were trying to impose this law, or perhaps the Gentiles did not feel as competent in the scriptures, since they were not as schooled in them as were the Jews among them. Either way, this next chapter seems to be pointed more at the Jews and providing evidence to them by showing the precedents for this new system of faith, the gospel.]
Romans 4
4:1 What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather, hath found according to the flesh?
2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not toward God.
[If, in fact, his behavior was perfectly righteous, then he could glory in himself and declare to God that God owed him salvation as the reasonable compensation for his works. So, his glorying would be in himself and not in God. We know, of course, that Abraham was not perfect in his behavior, and neither are any of us.]
3 For what saith the scripture? And Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned unto him for righteousness.
[Genesis 15:6. The event was when Abraham went to God with regard to the issue of his not being given a heir of his own seed. He was getting old and it seemed as though the only fulfillment of the promise could be the son of Sarah's handmaiden. God showed him the stars in the heavens and told him that from his own seed would come that number of people. Gen. 15:6: "And he believed in the LORD. And He reckoned it to him for righteousness." This event shows that what Abraham was believing was something that to him at this point in time seemed more than unlikely; it seemed impossible. The results of Abraham's faith is illustrated for us in Hebrews 11. Abraham was ready and willing to do whatever God appointed him to do -- his attitude was one of total subjection to God. This can hardly be compared to what is called faith-only today. Clearly it was not when viewed in terms of the context and all that the bible says about the faithfulness of Abraham.]
4 Now to him that works, the reward is not reckoned as of grace, but as of debt.
5 But to him that works not, but believes on him that justifies the ungodly, his faith is reckoned for righteousness.
[This is not talking about the value of works in general, but rather our attempt to be saved by our own power as opposed to the power of God (1:16). "Works" here is short for "earns his salvation" -- this is speaking accommodatively, and is not a statement that such is possible. "Works not" is short for "does not depend on himself but has faith in God's righteousness (1:17)." Abraham realized that the blessings from God were not things he had worked for -- he would never imagine that God owed him the things that were promised to him. Certainly he viewed the blessing of God as a matter of God's grace, and not a matter of debt. But this, of course, did not deter Abraham from being obedient to God. Abraham should stand as the example here. Surely, "works not" here cannot mean that Abraham was devoid of any works of obedience at all. That is a totally unreasonable position to take with regard to someone who was willing to sacrifice his only son through whom the promises were given. The contrast is not between obedience and disobedience; it is between the concept of earning one's salvation as opposed to receiving it as a free gift of God out of God's grace. Free, yet with some conditions, one of them being faith and all that this word implies, which is spelled out quite well in Hebrews 11. Those who would state that acts of obedience on our part show a lack of faith make God's commands sinful, something that is clearly condemned immediately above in this context. Let us try to understand exactly what Paul is trying to get across to us as opposed to some predefined doctrine that we are trying to fit it to. Those who use this passage as a license to ignore God's law of faith (Rom 3:27) are condemned in Romans 6:1.]
6 Even as David also pronounces blessing upon the man, unto whom God reckons righteousness apart from works,
7(saying), Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, And whose sins are covered.
[Psalm 32. Note that "apart from works" here again does not mean that those who received these blessings had no works, or that they would not have a strong desire to do the works that are motivated by a living faith (James 2:26). Consider James 2:20-24:
20 But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith apart from works is barren?
21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, in that he offered up Isaac his son upon the altar?
22 You see that faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect;
23 and the scripture was fulfilled which saith, And Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned unto him for righteousness; and he was called the friend of God.
24 Ye see that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
There is absolutely no contradiction here, and it is wrong to pit these two sections of scripture in contrast with each other. No one can be saved by "works only" any more than they can be saved by "faith only." Hebrews 11 shows clearly that those who had faith always (no exceptions) had the works of God as a result. Similarly, the working of God within each of us cannot exist in the absence of faith. So it is not an either-or situation. Not only do faith and works coexist (they are not mutually exclusive), but it is totally impossible for one of them to exist without the other. Repentance, for example, is a condition of forgiveness. The blessed person has done both good and evil works in the past, but having met the conditions of forgiveness, his evil works are covered and forgiven, and "Blessed are they who iniquities are forgiven."]
[Further, allow Psalm 32 to be a commentary on this verse -- please read the entire chapter. In particular, notice:
Psalms 32 verses 3 and 5:
3 "When I kept silence, my bones wasted away through my groaning all the day long. ...
5 I acknowledged my sin unto thee, and mine iniquity did I not hide: I said, I will confess my transgressions unto the LORD; and You forgave the iniquity of my sin."
When David did nothing, God did nothing, and David was condemned and he knew it. Was there some virtue in his doing nothing and just believing (assuming that such is even possible)? No, and David knew it and expressed it in this psalm. His acknowledging his sins and confessing them shows repentance, what many today would erroneously place in the classification of "works." But David does not take the credit for his forgiveness; he gives all of the credit to God. Read verse 5 again and see that David's not being saved by works does not at all mean that David did nothing except believe (we are speaking accomodatively -- we do not mean to imply that it is even possible to do "nothing except believe" it it is a true belief in the promises of God.]
8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not reckon sin.
[Not the sinless man, for Jesus was the only man who was ever perfectly sinless. Nor is it the man who does nothing. But the one who is blessed is the one who has done what God requires in order to obtain forgiveness, and thus the Lord will not reckon sin to that person.]
9 Is this blessing then pronounced upon the circumcision, or upon the uncircumcision also? for we say, To Abraham his faith was reckoned for righteousness.
10 How then was it reckoned? when he was in circumcision, or in uncircumcision? Not in circumcision, but in uncircumcision:
[The statement made above of Abraham's belief being reckoned to him for righteousness was made before the command regarding circumcision was given, and way before the Law of Moses. Paul is arguing that these laws had other purposes than leading men to salvation (God's righteousness: 1:16-17), since this requires forgiveness whereas the OT laws required perfect obedience.]
11 and he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had while he was in uncircumcision; that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be in uncircumcision, that righteousness might be reckoned unto them;
12 and the father of circumcision to them who not only are of the circumcision, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham which he had in uncircumcision.
[Clearly Genesis 15:6 discussed above, occurred prior to Genesis 17:10-11, the point in time when God gave Abraham the covenant of circumcision. Circumcision is analogous to the obedience to the gospel that proceeds out of our faith today (Colossians 2:11-12). It is called "a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had while he was in uncircumcision."
Is the "righteousness of the faith" here the same "righteousness of God" of Romans 1:17? If not then we would have to conclude that his righteousness was not produced by God's will but of Abraham's own doing, which is unthinkable. This tells us that the salvation of Abraham and the salvation of Christians is really not that much different, Jesus Christ being the same yesterday, today and forever (Hebrews 13:8). This is not saying that the laws of God were not changed at certain points in time to suit the purposes for which they were given. But the same thing is required of us today as was required of Abraham; namely, faithfulness. And the term "righteousness of the faith" (of Abraham) here and its use in the next verse (13), "righteousness of faith" without qualification, shows that God had prepared a system of faith for Abraham and his children just as he has for us today.. Paul goes on here to indicate that ultimately the "righteousness of God" would apply to more than just the Jews, "that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be in uncircumcision." So the precedent for the salvation of the gentiles exists since Abraham was, in a sense, an uncircumcised Gentile when God pronounced him righteous.]
13 For not through the law was the promise to Abraham or to his seed that he should be heir of the world, but through the righteousness of faith.
[The "righteousness of faith" can be viewed in two ways: (1) Abraham was pronounced righteous -- not because he was perfectly righteous in keeping some law (any law) of God -- but because he believed God; and (2) Abraham exhibited the righteousness of faith in his own life in that his righteousness proceeded out of his faith (Hebrews 11). While both of these are true, the essence of what Paul is trying to get across here leans more toward the first view, which conforms to 1:16-17. While the gospel had not yet been revealed, the righteousness of faith had, and this is the model that Paul is trying to get his fellow Jews to see.]
[Paul has now established that salvation is not something that we can earn or merit -- or in any way invent for ourselves. It is of God, and he described it as being "the righteousness of God" i.e., the righteousness that is imputed to man by God's plan as described in the gospel (Rom. 1:16). Our justification is not by our own works or even the works of the Old Testament law that was given by God. This is what Paul has generally referenced as "works." As opposed to this is the "righteousness of God," which he has encapsulated into the word faith, indicating the response to it that is required on our part. The "righteousness of God" does us as individuals no good at all unless we believe it, and thus act upon it.]
[Recall that Chapter 4 is basically presenting evidence, mainly to those who might have the tendency to go back under the Law of Moses, that salvation was not to be found there. Generally he refers to this as "the works of the law" or sometimes just "works" or just "law." It is important to see that Paul is generally not using these words in the sense that we might use them today. He is not arguing for anarchy, for example. He is arguing that salvation is from God and according to what God has revealed through Jesus Christ, not through any other way, including the Old Testament law.]
13 For not through the law was the promise to Abraham or to his seed that he should be heir of the world, but through the righteousness of faith.
[This is a bit of overlap -- the discussion on the entire first 13 verses appy here. If necessary, please review and refresh your memory. This is a conclusion based on the fact that the promise to Abraham was made prior to the Law of Moses (obviously), but even prior to God giving Abraham the law of circumcision.]
14 For if they that are of the law are heirs, faith is made void, and the promise is made of none effect:
15 for the law worketh wrath; but where there is no law, neither is there transgression.
["They that are of the law" = those who are living as though the Old Testament law is adequate; specifically, those who were trying to pull the Christians in Rome back under the Old Testament law. Why would we need Christ if salvation was already there? Why did Christ have to die? This system of earning one's salvation has been removed. It never worked, and it never could work. It's purpose was good and just; but it was to bring the world to a point where Christ could serve to bring us salvation through faith -- it was never intended to provide salvation per se.]
16 For this cause (it is) of faith, that (it may be) according to grace; to the end that the promise may be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all
17(as it is written, A father of many nations have I made thee [Genesis 17:5]) before him whom he believed, (even) God, who gives life to the dead, and calls the things that are not, as though they were.
[According to grace -- not something that we earn -- we cannot earn it; it is a gift that is not warranted by our goodness, but given to us when our sins are forgiven. All the seed -- not just that through Isaac and Jacob -- don't forget Ismael and Esau. Great nations came of them as well, and the promise was "through thy seed ALL the nations of the earth would be blessed" -- not just to Jacob (Israel). Taking out the parenthetical: "... Abraham, who is the father of us all before Him whom he believed, God, who gives life to the dead and calls ... (giving praise to God). The word "(even)" is in parenthesis to show it was inserted by the translators. There is no equivalent unique Greek word to the way that we use the word "even" today. While there are some constructs that support this meaning, it is largely the opinion of the translator as to its use and some scholars have objected to the liberty that some take in introducing it (e.g., Winer's cautionary word needs heeding, that "this meaning has been introduced into too many passages" -- from Vine's Expository Dictionary.) In our opinion, it should be ignored here and should be regarded skeptically wheneer it changes some the meaning of a verse.]
[Referring to Abraham ...]
18 Who in hope believed against hope, to the end that he might become a father of many nations, according to that which had been spoken, So shall thy seed be.
19 And without being weakened in faith he considered his own body now as good as dead (he being about a hundred years old), and the deadness of Sarah's womb;
20 yet, looking unto the promise of God, he wavered not through unbelief, but waxed strong through faith, giving glory to God,
21 and being fully assured that what He had promised, He was able also to perform.
[This further defines what faith is. It argues to the extent of his belief. By faith Abraham did what he did (Hebrews 11). Clearly he was not perfect, but he was faithful to God all of his life. To those who would base their faith system on the example of Abraham, we urge them to follow all of Abraham's examples of faithfulness in the entire new life that they have by faith in Jesus Christ. The major problem we see is the changing of the clear New Testament meaning of the word faith to be some mental process often where this definition is pressed to the point of making any behavioral change resulting from this faith to be a lack of faith-only and thus sin. It is never wrong to obey God with the heart.]
22 Wherefore also it was reckoned unto him for righteousness.
[So, even though he was not perfect, he was reckoned as being righteous by God. His faith was reckoned unto him for righteousness, and this is the system of faith that Paul is appealing to in the gospel.]
23 Now it was not written for his sake alone, that it was reckoned unto him;
24 but for our sake also, unto whom it shall be reckoned, who believe on him that raised Jesus our Lord from the dead,
25 who was delivered up for our trespasses, and was raised for our justification.
[This states that God has a far greater purpose in his dealing with Abraham than what the Jews generally understood. He was not just creating a nation of God's chosen people, but he was looking toward the time when the righteousness that is of God would lead to the salvation of all men. I a very real sense, God requires the same thing of us today as He required of Abraham -- faithfulness. Do we have to leave Ur of the Chaldees? Do we have to practice circumcision? Do we have to be willing to sacrifice our sons to the point or lifting the knife against them? If that was what God commanded of us today, then YES. But it is not. No, the specifics of just what it means to be faithful are different in the Christian dispensation. But for sure, like Abraham, faith will lead us to do many things today in service to God, and if those things do not exist then it is only right and proper that we question whether we have saving faith at all. Remember, the system of faith of the New Testament is intended to produce people of a much higher quality of morality and service than that given in the Old Testament. Do we see this working out in our lives today?]
Romans 5
5:1 Being therefore justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ;
[We could have peace under no other circumstances. Justification by faith here is equivalent to being justified by the righteousness of God, i.e., that system of faith revealed to us by God in the gospel.]
2 [Jesus,] through whom also we have had our access by faith into this grace wherein we stand; and we rejoice in hope of the glory of God.
[It is of grace because it is totally not earned or deserved. Our access to this grace is by a true, living faith in the righteousness of God as opposed to our own righteousness.]
3 And not only so, but we also rejoice in our tribulations: knowing that tribulation works stedfastness;
4 and stedfastness, approvedness; and approvedness, hope:
5 and hope putteth not to shame; because the love of God hath been shed abroad in our hearts through the Holy Spirit which was given unto us.
[Rome was not the most accommodating environment for Christians, and Paul anticipates additional tribulations - this will be discussed in much greater detail in Chapter 8. Here he introduces the positive aspects of their being persecuted. And further, the help that God has given to His people in shedding His love for us in our hearts through the Holy Spirit, who is given to all who are obedient (Acts 5:32). Let us not think that this is some miraculous thing, or that it must manifest itself miraculously. Paul is talking to all Christians at Rome, and it is a certainty that they did not all have, nor did they need, miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit. They obtained the Holy Spirit much as Paul did in the early days of his preaching, and that was through his past diligent study of the scriptures. The only thing keeping us from being full of the Holy Spirit today is our refusal to feed on what the Holy Spirit delivered to them, which we now have in the scriptures.]
6 For while we were yet weak, in due season Christ died for the ungodly.
7 For scarcely for a righteous man will one die: for peradventure for the good man some one would even dare to die.
8 But God commendeth his own love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
[This is the essence of the "righteousness of God" as described by the gospel. Salvation is not earned or merited. We in no way could even conceive of what Christ did for us. No man on earth ever come up with such an idea, but even if they did that mere idea would not save them. Christ had to actually die, which he did for us while we were (perhaps some reading still are) in the depths of our sin. We know there are some today who have themselves nailed to a cross so that they can experience what Jesus did. Since God never in any way inferred his good pleasure on those who would do such things, we must echo the words of Paul in Colossians 2:23: "Which things have indeed a show of wisdom in will-worship, and humility, and severity to the body; (but are) not of any value against the indulgence of the flesh."]
9 Much more then, being now justified by his blood, shall we be saved from the wrath (of God) through him.
[He did this for us BEFORE we were justified. Now we are different. Now we (in this case, they, the Roman Christians) are justified by faith. If God did this for us when we were "still sinners" how much more now that we are justified? The contrast here is not between sinful and sinless -- it is between those whose lives are dictated by their own self-will and those who are trying to please God. We will never be perfectly sinless, but clearly there must a difference between pre- and post-justification.]
10 For if, while we were enemies, we were reconciled to God through the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, shall we be saved by his life;
11 and not only so, but we also rejoice in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received the reconciliation.
[Paul speaking to his fellow Christians here is not discussing the "how" of salvation -- he is recognizing the fact that they had done what is necessary to be faithful Christians ... to be reconciled through the grace of God, as described above. Prior to that point they were "enemies" of the cross (Philippians 3:18); now they are reconciled.]
[Paul has established that we are saved by the "righteousness of God," which he has essentially encapsulated into the word "faith" as contrasted with our own righteousness, which he encapsulated into the word "works," seemingly to facilitate his discussion of this contrast. He now wants to show that this was part of God's plan from the beginning, which he does by way of analogy.]
12 Therefore, as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin; and so death passed unto all men, for that all sinned: --
13 for until the law sin was in the world; but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
[Death did not pass unto all men because of Adam's sin; it passed to us because we have all sinned -- maybe not like Adam, but our sins reveal that had we been in Adam/Eve's situation we would have done exactly what they did. Sin is rebellion against God, regardless of what form it takes.]
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the likeness of Adam's transgression, who is a figure of him that was to come.
[The word "as" in verse 12 shows that this is figurative language -- it is not to be taken literally; but it has truth that it is conveying that could not be conveyed without the figurative language -- it is not to hide; it is to reveal. Jesus is an antitype of Adam.]
15 But not as the trespass, so also (is) the free gift. For if by the trespass of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God, and the gift by the grace of the one man, Jesus Christ, abound unto the many.
[Adam's sin brought sin into the world. In a similar (but not identical) sense, the grace of God through the one man Jesus Christ can take it out. But the trespass is not like the free gift of salvation in that what Jesus did far eclipses what Adam did. Note that in both (1) Adam's sin and (2) Jesus' sacrifice to produce the gift of salvation, humans are not just bystanders watching the process go by. We are in sin not because Adam sinned, but because we have sinned. And similarly, we are not saved by default, but by taking those actions that the gospel (righteousness of God: 1:17) spells out for us to take as a result of our faith in Jesus Christ.]
16 And not as through one that sinned, (so) is the gift: for the judgment (came) of one unto condemnation, but the free gift (came) of many trespasses unto justification.
[Similarly, the antitypical analogy being formulated to contrast Adam and Jesus breaks down in another respect. The one sin (Adam's) brought sin into the world, but ultimately it gave rise to all of our sins. However, the one free gift of Jesus shedding his blood on the cross applies to not just one, but to all of our sins, given that we allow the righteousness of God to work in our lives.]
17 For if, by the trespass of the one, death reigned through the one; much more shall they that receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness reign in life through the one, (even) Jesus Christ.
[Here the righteousness of God (see 1:17) is called the gift of righteousness -- there can be no argument that the two are the same; where else would righteousness come from as a gift? See the parallel with verses 8 and 9. Paul's argument is the same. It is an argument from the lesser to the greater; if the lesser is true then the greater has to be true. If God reconciled us to Him while we were still sinners, how much more are we reconciled now that the righteousness of God is alive and active in our lives. If Adam's sin caused death to reign in us, then how much more will the "gift of righteousness" (see 1:17) create spiritual life in us.]
18 So then as through one trespass (the judgment came) unto all men to condemnation; even so through one act of righteousness (the free gift came) unto all men to justification of life.
[This sums up what Paul was expressing in the analogy given above. It is "as through one trespass" -- that is, there is a similarity between the oneness of the sin of Adam and the oneness of the sacrifice of Jesus. This is further explained by Paul in the next verse.]
19 For as through the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the one shall the many be made righteous.
[This cannot be an unconditional statement; if it were then all men would be saved unconditionally (e.g., without faith or any obedience that it produces). If this first clause is literal, then the second would have to be literal as well. So, if there is such a thing as unconditional original sin, then this verse would teach that the obedience of Jesus saves all people unconditionally. But clear passages tell us that salvation is conditional. Again, the word "as" takes out the literal force of this statement. Paul has already established that all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God (Romans 3:23), as well as the futility of our trying to save ourselves by our own righteousness. This analogy demonstrates this truth and the reason for it.]
20 And the law came in besides, that the trespass might abound; but where sin abounded, grace did abound more exceedingly:
21 that, as sin reigned in death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
[Many versions just say "the law entered" or "the law came in." The ASV given here would seem to be more descriptive of the Greek, which implies something in parallel (besides). The Greek word is pareiserchomai
(NT:3922 pareiserchomai; from NT:3844 and NT:1525; to come in alongside, i.e. supervene additionally or steathily. --Biblesoft's New Exhaustive Strong's Numbers and Concordance with Expanded Greek-Hebrew Dictionary. Copyright © 1994, 2003 Biblesoft, Inc. and International Bible Translators, Inc.)]
[The purpose of the law was not to enable us to save ourselves by perfect law keeping. This is true of the Law of Moses or any other law that we might contrive. Salvation is by grace through faith in Jesus Christ, and it can never be accomplished by perfect law keeping. So what was the purpose of the law? To prove this very fact! That sin might be seen to be sin -- "that the trespass might abound," but more importantly, that we might see it aboud and recognize its sordid nature in causing spiritual death. There was/is no remedy for it short of the righteousness of God (1:16-17), and so grace reign's through this righteousness unto eternal life. Apparently the Roman Christians were having a problem with this basic concept, and some had accused Paul of falsehood in this regard. This will be dealt with in the next chapter.]
[The first five chapters have stressed the futility of our trying to save ourselves through any type law keeping, and, in particular, keeping the Law of Moses. We have said that Paul encapsulates the "righteousness of God" with the word "faith," and that this plan of salvation provides the motivation for a dramatic improvement in our behavior that results from living for Jesus once we have been born again (John 3). Chapter 6 describes how our lives should change as a result of this trust.]
Go To Romans 6-10